Why does the Torah insert the word "Kol Zachar"?
Rashi and Ramban: To include Ba'alei -Mumin in the distribution. 1
Rashi: Since the concession of eating Kodshei Kodshim we already know from a Pasuk in Emor (See 21:22). Moshav Zekenim - Toras Kohanim learns from "v'Charevah
What are the implications of the phrase "Kol Asher Yiga Bahem Yikdash"?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "Kol Asher Yiga Bahem Yikdash" teaches that what absorbs from a Minchah becomes like it. In Pesachim (45a), "Kol Asher Yiga bi'Vsarah Yikdash" (verse 20) teaches so about Chatas, These should be Shnei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im k'Echad!
Korban Aharon (on Sifra, Perek 3, 6): We need our verse "Bahem" to teach that it is not forbidden through mere touching, only if it absorbs taste. We need the verse "bi'Vsarah" to teach that it is forbidden only if the Heter absorbs taste of the Isur.
Korban Aharon (on Sifra, Sof Perek 5): If we had only the verse of Chatas, I would say that meat (e.g. lard) is absorbed deep into other food (e.g. Shelamim), but a Minchah is not. If we had only the verse of Minchah, which is soft, I would say that it is absorbed deep into other food, but Chatas is not.
Beis She'arim (OC 167): Sha'ar ha'Melech asked, how can we use (in Pesachim 45a) the verse of Chatas for Shnei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im k'Echad (that Heter joins with Isur)? It is needed for an Isur Aseh, lest the Aseh of eating Kodshim override the Lav (for a Zar to eat what absorbed from Kodshei Kodoshim). Our verse is needed for this Aseh!
