hebrew
1)

Seeing as Moshe is being addressed, why did Hashem (or the angel) say "ve'Nigash Moshe", and not "ve'Nigashta"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing Ibn Ezra): Here too, it is common practice for the Torah to state the name in place of the pronoun. 1

2.

Ramban #2: In fact, the current instructions were said to Aharon as well. Consequently, in this Pasuk, it was necessary to mention Moshe specifically, to preclude Aharon. 2


1

See for example Bereishis 19:24, Bamidbar, 10:29 (Ramban).

2

Which also explain why the Torah inserts the word "Levado" (See Ramban).

2)

Why were the elders denied the privelege of ascending Har Sinai?

1.

Rashi: Refer to 5:1:1:1*.

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