1)

Why does the Torah juxtapose Sh'mitah to the Din of not oppressing a Ger?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that it is not only because we were Geirim in Egypt that we should not oppress a Ger, but because even now, he is in no way inferior to us. See how we too are Geirim in the land - which belongs to Hashem, as is evident from the fact that, once every seven years we are obligated to leave the land fallow in honor of its true Master.

2)

What is the mean ing of "ve'Atem Yeda'atem es Nefesh ha'Ger"?

1.

Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It means 'You know how the stranger suffers (when he is oppressed - Rashi)'.

3)

Why does the Torah need to insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Sheish Shanim Tuzra es Artzecha" ?

1.

Mechilta: To teach us that that is what will happen if Yisrael perform the will of Hashem - whereas if they don't, they will plow one year and plant the next year - so that they will in effect, have to observe four Sh'mitos in each seven-year cycle. 1


1

It also explains how it is possible for the land to to produce every year without respite.

4)

What are the implications of "ve'Sheish Shanim Tizra es Artzecha"??

1.

Da'as Zekenim: It implies that it is a Mitzvah to plant in the Sh'mitah. A Midrash teaches us that, even if one owns a small ruin in his garden, he must tend to it every day. 1


1

R. Moshe explains this only applies in Eretz Yisrael - in order to increase separation of T'rumos and Ma'asros.

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