1)

What is the significance of safekeeping the lamb for four days prior to slaughtering it?

1.

Rashi: It was in order to examine 1 it for blemishes. 2

2.

Targum Yonasan: They tied the lamb to their bed-posts, to demonstrate that they were no longer afraid of the Egyptians, who watched them doing it (and gnashed their teeth in frustration - Moshav Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim). 3


1

Moshav Zekenim, Riva: We say (Avodah Zarah 5b) that thirty days are needed to check! That is to distinguish whether a Mum in the eye is temporary or permanent. Four days suffice to check that there is no Mum.

2

Riva: The Korban was to atone for the idolatry that Yisrael served in Egypt; therefore it needed to be checked for four days, like a Korban for idolatry.

3

Moshav Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: And since the tenth of Nisan that year fell on Shabbos, that is why the Shabbos before Pesach is called Shabbos ha'Gadol. For Maharal - refer to 12:3:2.02.

2)

Why did Hashem command them to take the lambs on the tenth of Nisan - four days before offering it (which was not required in subsequent years)?

1.

Rashi (citing a Midrash): Although the time of the Redemption (that Hashem swore to Avraham) had arrived, Yisrael had no Mitzvos to their credit that rendered them worthy of being redeemed. So Hashem gave them two Mitzvos - the blood of Pesach 1 and the blood of Milah 2 - with which to occupy themselves 3 [for four days]. 4

2.

Moshav Zekenim: Because they would be distracted for three days due to the [pain of the] Bris Milah. 5 Therefore, this was only in Egypt, but not for all generations.

3.

Because it fell on Shabbos, causing the Egyptians to ask why they were taking animals on Shabbos. Once they knew why, the test for Yisrael grew, and that, in turn, led to a great miracle. Refer to 12:6:1:2 and note.

4.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because, due to a number of reasons, 6 had Hashem commanded them to circumcise on the fourteenth, they would not have been able to bring themselves to do the Shechitah. Therefore He commanded them just to take a lamb on the tenth and to tie it to their bedposts. Then when they would hear it crying out for four days and nobody would came to save it, both their feelings toward the lamb and their fear of the Egyptians' retaliation would slowly but surely dissipate. And when, after they had done the Shechitah, Moshe ordered them to circumcise, they had no choice but to do so in order to be allowed to eat the Korban Pesach. 7 Otherwise, they would not be redeemed. 8


1

As the Mechilta writes (based on verse 12:21), 'Withdraw from idolatry, and take for yourselves a lamb of Mitzvah' (Also refer to 12:21:2:2).

2

As is hinted in the Pasuk in Zecharyah (9:11), and which both entailed a degree of self-sacrifice.

3

As is hinted in Yechezkel 16:6-8 [See Rashi]). Also refer to 12:13:2.1:3**.

4

Hadar Zekenim and Da'as Zekenim (to 12:3) citing R. Yitzchak of Ivra: Four days were needed to allow three full days to elapse following the Bris Milah before travelling. (In any case they could not circumcise on the tenth, which was Shabbos. Why could they not be commanded and circumcise on the eleventh, since they were not destined to travel until the morning of the fifteenth! - PF)

5

Why could they not take it on the fourteenth? (PF). See answer 12:6:2:4 and its notes.

6

Because, a. In order to find favor in the eyes of the Egyptians, they had forsaken the Mitzvah of Milah; b. Milah is in extremely difficult for a grown-up to perform; c. They were afraid that, if they slaughtered the lambs, the Egyptians would kill them; d. There were people among them who believed in the Egyptian gods, and who would not have been able to simply slaughter the lambs there and then.

7

Oznayim la'Torah: Seeing as the Torah forbids an Arel to partake of the Korban Pesach. See 12:48, and Rashi on 12:43 DH 'Zos Chukas ha'Pasach.' See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'l'Mishmeres' who elaborates.

8

Oznayim la'Torah: And to remain in Egypt after having slaughtered their gods was not an option.

3)

Why does the Torah add the word, "[la'Chodesh] ha'Zeh"?

1.

Pesachim 97a: To exclude Pesach Sheini from the obligation to examine it for four days before the Shechitah.

4)

How is it possible for all of Yisrael to slaughter one Korban Pesach?

1.

Rashi (citing Kidushin 41b): The Torah is teaching us here the principle of 'Shelucho Shel Adam Kemoso' - that one person can perform the Shechitah on behalf of others. 1

2.

Moshav Zekenim: This teaches that all of Yisrael can be Yotzei on one Pesach (Kidushin 41b), even though everyone does not own a k'Zayis. 2


1

Riva: Why do we need a verse to teach that [normally,] Shelucho Shel Adam Kamoso? We must say so, for we expound about Eglah Arufah, "Zekeinecha" (Devarim 21:2) - the elders specifically. and not their Shali'ach! (Perhaps we expound "Zekeinecha" so, only because we already know from here that Shelucho Shel Adam Kamoso! - PF).

2

This is an individual opinion. According to the Halachah, every participant is obligated to eat a k'Zayis. Refer to 12:4:2:1.

5)

What is the significance of the three terms "Kehal Adas Yisrael"?

1.

Rashi (citing Pesachim 64a): We learn from here that, later in the Beis ha'Mikdash, when the people brought their Korbanos Pesach, they were offered in three consecutive groups.

6)

What is the definition of "Bein ha'Arbayim"? Why is it called by that name?

1.

Rashi: It refers to the hours between midday and nightfall. It is called so because 'Erev' means night and darkness. 1 Consequently, Bein ha'Arbayim refers to the time in between the Erev of the day (after midday, when the shadows begin to lengthen) and the Erev of the night (when darkness falls). 2

2.

Ramban: It is from midday until sunset (an hour and a quarter before nightfall). This period is called Arbayim, 3 and Bein in this context, means (not 'in between,' but) 'during' or 'among (in) the middle of' (as in Bereishis 26:28).

3.

Gur Aryeh: Refer to 12:6:5.2:2.


1

As in Yeshayah 24:11.

2

See Ramban, who brings a number of proofs that 'Erev' has the dual meaning of nighttime and the end of the day, and who cites the Ibn Ezra's questions on Rashi and refutes them.

3

Whereas the period of sunset is called 'Erev Yom.'

7)

Why must the Korban Pesach be slaughtered Bein ha'Arbayim - in the afternoon?

1.

Maharal (Gevuros Hashem): Refer to 12:3:6.3:2, section C; and 12:3:6.3:3 section B.

8)

What are the Halachic ramifications of "Bein ha'Arbayim"?

1.

Pesachim 61a: If the Korban Pesach is slaughtered before Chatzos (midday), it is Pasul. 1


1

Refer to 12:6:5:1, 12:6:5:2.

9)

What is the significance of the fact that the Torah writes "ba'Erev" (Devarim 16:4,6) and "Bein ha'Arbayim" (here) in connection with the Korban Pesach, but only "Bein ha'Arbayim" in connection with the Korban Tamid" (in Bamidbar 28:4)?

1.

Pesachim 59a: It teaches us that the Korban Pesach is brought after the Korban Tamid.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

10)

Rashi writes: "Why was the Korban taken [into the house] four days before its slaughter? ... They did not have any Mitzvos to involve themselves in, [as a merit] so that they could be redeemed...." But perhaps it was simply to inspect the animal for any blemish, over the course of four days?

1.

Gur Aryeh: If so, they need not have signed up as Chaburos on the 10th of Nisan. They could have signed up on the 14th, onto a lamb that had already been checked for four days (as would be the usual procedure in the future, in Pesach Doros). This year in Pesach Mitzrayim, they had to sign up and form Chaburos on the 10th - in order to involve themselves in Mitzvos.

11)

Rashi writes: "They did not have any Mitzvos to involve themselves in... so He gave them two Mitzvos -- the blood of the Pesach, and the blood of Milah." What is the significance of these two Mitzvos?

1.

Gur Aryeh: The Bnei Yisrael had been Avadim to Pharaoh; but now they would become Avadim to Hashem. The Milah is the brand (Chosam) of our servitude to Hashem 1 - but an Eved must also serve his master in practice! The Pesach is actual Avodah 2 - but one instance of service does not make someone an Eved. In order to be redeemed forever, to be absolute Avadim of Hashem, we required both Dam Milah and Dam Pesach. 3

2.

Maharal #1 (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 35, p. 132): A material 4 person would not be worthy of a Redemption with signs and wonders. 5 Hashem gave us two Divine Mitzvos, with which to merit Redemption. The Milah removes the baseness which separates between Hashem and man; and the Pesach is Avodah to Hashem.' 6 Only then did we merit to be redeemed.

3.

Maharal #2 (ibid.): The blood of Milah brought them mercy 7 - to free them of their distress and servitude. The blood of Pesach made them Avdei Hashem, fit to be redeemed, and no longer under the domain of Egypt. 8


1

Gur Aryeh: As we recite in Birkas ha'Mazon, "Al Berisecha she'Chasamta bi'Vesareinu."

2

See 12:26 and 13:5. Refer to 12:2:4.1:2, 12:3:6.3:1**, and 12:48:1.5:1.

3

Gur Aryeh: This explains why an Arel cannot partake of the Korban Pesach. Also refer to 12:43:3.1:1 -The Dam Pesach had to blend with the Dam Milah.

4

For an explanation of the terms Chomer and Tzurah that appear often in Maharal, refer to 12:12:7.6:3*.

5

Maharal (loc. cit.): The wonders indicate attachment to Hashem, Who is above nature. (Therefore, we too had to separate from physical Chomer.)

6

One cannot serve Hashem before removing that base deficiency. See Gur Aryeh in answer 1.

7

Gitin 57a interprets the verse "For over You have we been killed all the day" (Tehilim 44:23) referring to Milah. But the Pesach also has an aspect of mercy; refer to 12:13:2.5:1 and its note.

8

Maharal: This interpretation is clear from Targum Yonasan to Yechezkel 16:6 (the verse 'b'Damayich Chayi').

12)

Rashi writes: "Why was the Korban taken in four days before its Shechitah? ... They did not have any Mitzvos to involve themselves in, [as a merit] so that they could be redeemed...." Why did they have to begin four days in advance; wouldn't two days have been sufficient?

1.

Gur Aryeh #1: A person should involve himself in a Mitzvah as much and as early as possible. Practically speaking, examining an animal for blemishes is best done over four days.

2.

Gur Aryeh #2: The numbers 1 through 10 are simple, whereas numbers 11 and on are composite. 1 Days 11 thru 14 are one continuum, and the Korban would be slaughtered on the 14th. Taking in the animal "in advance" had to be done on the 10th.

3.

Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 35, p. 133): Taking in the Korban Pesach was the beginning of their separating themselves from idolatry. 2 They did so on the 10th, because the number 10 is always sanctified. 3


1

The number 10 counts only tens; whereas the number 11 counts both tens and ones. (EK) For example, in Gematriya, the number 10 is represented by one letter (Yud), and we need two letters only beginning with number 11 (Yud-Alef).

2

The Korban Pesach shows the Oneness of Hashem; refer to 12:3:6.3.

3

For additional reasons why the Korban Pesach was taken in on the 10th of Nisan, refer to 12:3:1.3:1 and 12:3:1.3:2.

13)

Rashi writes: "... Because they were steeped in idolatry, Hashem said to them, "Mishchu..." (12:21) - 'Withdraw your hands from idolatry, and take for yourself sheep for the Mitzvah!'" But Rashi to 12:21 explains differently - "Mishchu - Someone who owns sheep should take (Yimshoch) of his own..." ?

1.

Gur Aryeh (to 12:21): The simple Peshat is as Rashi explains in 12:21 - either take your own sheep, or purchase one at the market. But this is obvious; why need it be said? That is why Rashi also cites the Midrash here.

14)

Rashi writes: "... Because they were steeped in idolatry, Hashem said to them, "Mishchu..." (12:21) - 'Withdraw your hands from idolatry, and take for yourself sheep for the Mitzvah!'" Why did this process have to take place in two stages?

1.

Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 35, p. 133): It would have been impossible to go straight from being steeped in idolatry, to becoming Hashem's portion. We had to first detach ourselves somewhat from idolatry by taking the Pesach in to the home on the 10th of Nisan, before divorcing ourselves from it completely by slaughtering it on the 14th. 1


1

Maharal: The Korban Pesach shows the Oneness of Hashem; refer to 12:3:6.3:1.

15)

Rashi writes: "'[All the congregation...] shall slaughter it' - ... From here we learn, that a person's agent can act on his behalf (Shelucho Shel Adam Kemoso)." But perhaps this verse means that one partner in each Chaburah should perform the Shechitah? How do we know that even an outsider ,who is not a partner, can act as a Shali'ach?

1.

Tosafos to Kidushin 42a (DH v'Dilma): According to the opinion that the number of participants in a Chaburah is limited to the amount of k'Zeisim of meat on the animal, it is impossible for the entire congregation to sign up for the same Pesach. Nevertheless, the Torah says that one person can perform Shechitah on many Pesach offerings 1 - despite that he is not a partner therein.

2.

Gur Aryeh: To allow a partner to the Chaburah to perform the Shechitah, would not even require a Pasuk. The Torah required one sheep for each family (12:3, 12:21); any Mitzvah performed by a member of the group would automatically apply to all of them. Rather, our verse allows even an outsider to act as an agent on the Chaburah's behalf.


1

Gur Aryeh asks - Why must this be the meaning of the verse? Perhaps it means that each Korban must be slaughtered by one of its members.

16)

Rashi writes: "... From here we learn that a person's agent can act on his behalf (Shelucho Shel Adam Kemoso)." Why didn't Rashi derive this in 12:3 above, from the fact that one family member can purchase the Pesach on behalf of the whole family?

1.

Gur Aryeh: In that case, the entire family is a partner to the Korban; and that verse cannot teach us that there is Shelichus even for an outsider. (But our verse would otherwise be unnecessary, so it comes to teach us just that.)

17)

Rashi writes: "'Bein ha'Arbayim' - [I.e.,] from six hours (midday) and on.... It appears to me that 'Bein ha'Arbayim' means the hours between the evening (Areivas) of the day ,and the evening of the night.... Erev means dusk and darkness. "What is Rashi coming to explain?

1.

Gur Aryeh: As Rashi concludes, the term 'Erev' refers to anything dark. From midday and on, the day begins to darken (as the sun begins its descent); and nightfall is also called Erev. The time between these two points is called "Bein ha'Arbayim." 1


1

This explains Rashi. Gur Aryeh then gives his own approach; refer to 12:6:5.2:2.

18)

Rashi writes: "'Bein ha'Arbayim' - From six hours (midday) and on...." Targum Onkelos translates this term as "Bein Shimshaya" (lit. between the suns). What does this mean?

1.

Ramban: The time between 'the sun of the east' (i.e. when it leaves the eastern sector of the sky, at noon), and 'the sun of the west' (as it sets, at sunset). 1

2.

Gur Aryeh: "Bein ha'Arbayim" means 'Bein ha'Yamim' - between two days. It is the time when today is already fading, and tomorrow has not yet arrived. 2 Targum uses the vernacular 3 term for the same concept - 'Bein ha'Shemashos.' 4


1

Gur Aryeh questions this. Chazal use the term "Bein ha'Shemashos" to refer to the time between day and night.

2

Gur Aryeh: Each day is distinct; so there must be an intervening period between two days. This is caused by these two distinct "evenings" or "suns;" thus the terms "Bein ha'Arbayim," and 'Bein ha'Shemashos.'

3

Gur Aryeh: In the Torah's idiom, a day is called Erev - when it begins; but people call the day after the Shemesh.

4

Gur Aryeh: In Chazal's terms, "Bein ha'Shemashos" refers to twilight, when it is doubtful if it is day or night. Targum refers to "Bein ha'Arbayim" as "Bein ha'Shemashos" along the same lines. Chidushei Maharal to Shabbos 34a - The question whether 'Bein Ha'Shemashos' is day or night is not due to our lack of knowledge; it is a time that cannot be pinned down either way, and even Moshe Rabeinu could not resolve it.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & DonationsReaders' FeedbackMailing ListsTalmud ArchivesAsk the KollelDafyomi WeblinksDafyomi CalendarOther Yomi calendars