Why did Moshe say "ka'Chatzos ha'Laylah," and not 'ba'Chatzos... '?
Rashi #1 and Rashbam: "Chatzos" in this context is a verb, and what he meant was that 'when the night would be divided,' Hashem was destined to appear. 1
Rashi #2 (citing the Gemara in Berachos 4a): He meant that the firstborn were destined to die approximately at midnight, which he said because, although Hashem's times are precise, the Egyptians magicians may claim that it had taken place before or after midnight, and accuse Moshe of lying. 2
Targum Yonasan: What he meant to say was, that on the following night at exactly the same time, Makas Bechoros would take place. 3
Rashi: As we find, for example, in Shmuel I 9:26, and in Tehilim 124:3. See other examples in the Rashbam.
Which is why, when the plague actually took place, the Torah says ,"va'Yehi ba'Chatzi ha'Laylah" (12:29 - at exactly midnight). Oznayim la'Torah - According to this explanation, Moshe said this Parshah exactly where it is written - before the following one, which was said on Rosh Chodesh Nisan. Refer also to 11:4:2:1.
Berachos 3b: 'Is there such a thing as a doubt before Hashem?' It must therefore mean that this took place on the night between the thirteenth (of Nisan) and the fourteenth, Hashem is saying that at midnight of the following night - like the current one - He would go out across Egypt....
When exactly, were all the Pesukim until the end of the chapter said?
Ramban: They were said before Rosh Chodesh Nisan. 1
Hadar Zekenim (to 12:1): On Erev Pesach, immediately before the Makah struck. Refer to 10:24:151:4* and to 11:4:1:3
Why does the Torah omit that Hashem dictated this warning to Moshe, before Moshe relayed the message to Pharaoh?
Gur Aryeh: Refer to 10:1:4.2:1, regarding Makas Arbeh.
What are the implications of the words "b'Soch Mitzrayim"?
Oznayim la'Torah (based on Shemos Rabah): In connection with a creditor claiming his debt, the Torah writes in Shemos 24:11 that the Shali'ach Beis-Din should stand outside and that the debtor may bring him whatever he wants (Pachos she'b'Keilim) in payment of his debt. And it is only if the latter fails to do so that the Shali'ach Beis-Din may enter the debtors house and seize whatever he sees fit as payment. Here too, the Torah initially wrote (in 12:1) "va'Yomer Hashem El Moshe v'El Aharon b'Eretz Mitzrayim, Leimor." Initially, He did not enter Mitzrayim proper (the capital); He stood outside, waiting for Pharaoh to pay off their debt willingly (with only slight repercussions). But now that they declined to do so, Hashem entered Mitzrayim proper and claimed His debt in full - with heavy repercussions.
Why did Hashem say "Ani Yotzei," and not 'Ani Nichnas'?
Moshav Zekenim #1: "Yotzei" is an expression of strength, as in "ka'Gibor Yeitzei" (Yeshayahu 42:13).
Moshav Zekenim #2: "Ani Yotzei" actually means 'I am going in.' 1
Oznayim la'Torah: And the reason that the Torah does not write 'Ani Nichnas,' is because it is not befitting to say about Hashem that His entry causes death - rather that death is caused by the Shechinah's departure. 2
Prior to other Makos, Hashem was introduced as "Hashem, G-d of the Ivrim" (see 7:16). Why was the warning of Makas Bechoros introduced with the Name Havayah alone?
Maharal (Gevuros Hashem, end Ch. 32, p. 124): Hashem's Name would be sanctified through this Makah, in that "No dog shall so much as bark at one of Bnei Yisrael... in order that you will know, that Hashem draws a distinction between Mitzrayim and Yisrael!" (11:7). That is why the Specific Name is used here. 1
The Specific Name is also used to introduce Dam, Tzefarde'a, Arov, and Barad; refer to 7:17:1.1:1, 7:26:152:1, 8:16:1:1, and 9:29:3:3 respectively.
What is the significance of the phrase, "Koh Amar Hashem"?
Gur Aryeh (to Bamidbar 30:2): Chazal teach that all subsequent Nevi'im would also prophesy with the words 'Koh Amar Hashem,' yet only Moshe used the phrase "Zeh ha'Davar." This is because Moshe 'prophesied through a clear lens' (Yevamos 49b; Mizrachi loc. cit). Nonetheless, sometimes even Moshe said 'Koh Amar Hashem' - such as in this Pasuk. Gur Aryeh explains that the Torah's Halachos were transmitted with "Zeh ha'Davar," for the Mitzvos are Hashem's eternal and unchanging will; this aspect of prophecy was unique to Moshe. At other times, Moshe prophesied about specific things Hashem would do or command, which were of a timely nature, rather than eternal. For these, the term 'Koh' is appropriate.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Ka'Chatzos ha'Laylah' - [lit.] 'as the night is divided.' [The word] 'ka'Chatzos' is in the same [form] as 'ka'Alos [ha'Shachar' - Yehoshua 6:15] ...." What is Rashi trying to tell us?
Gur Aryeh: In the Peshat (simple) sense, "Ka'Chatzos" is not a noun, but a verb. The prefix Kaf then means, 'as the night was being divided.' In this sense, it means precisely the point of midnight, 1 and it does not mean an approximation.
Gur Aryeh: Had the Peshat been "Chatzos" as a noun (as in Tehilim 119:62), the prefix Kaf would have to be interpreted as approximating, 'at about midnight' - a bit before or after. Refer to 11:4:1.2.
Rashi writes: "... But our Sages interpreted it like [the verse] 'ba'Chatzi ha'Laylah' (12:29); ... and they explain that Moshe said "ka'Chatzos" [a noun, meaning 'at about midnight'] ... lest Pharaoh's astrologers err [in their timekeeping] ...." What led Chazal to deviate from the simple Peshat here?
Gur Aryeh #1: Although it is true that "ka'Chatzos" is best interpreted as a verb ('precisely as the night is divided'), 1 why didn't Moshe say 'ba'Chatzos,' with the prefix Beis ('at the point when the night is divided') - which is clearer, and is the term the Torah will use in 12:29? Rather, Moshe used a term that means exactly midnight, but which Pharaoh's astrologers could also interpret as an approximation, should they err in their timekeeping.
Gur Aryeh #2: "As the night was being divided" is not the best translation in context. It was not the dividing of the night which would bring on the Makah, but the moment of midnight itself. Therefore, Chazal read "ka'Chatzos" as a noun, and not a verb. 2
Gur Aryeh #3: Unlike the term ''ka'Alos ha'Shachar" - in which the dawn actively rises, 3 the night is only said to "be divided" - in the passive tense (Nif'al). 4 We cannot use this to build a verb in the infinitive, "ka'Chatzos," so it must be a noun.
Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 34, p. 127): Even according to Chazal, "ka'Chatzos" is a verb - "as the night was divided." Any action or process by definition takes a duration of time; and the astrologers would attribute any perceived deviation in timing to that range of time. But "ba'Chatzos" would be a noun, which they would understand as a precise moment. 5
Refer to the preceding question, 11:4:1.1:1.
Gur Aryeh: A grammarian will try to find a valid meaning of a word, based on similar usage. Chazal do not suffice with this; rather, they accept only the most precise meaning of the word in this particular context.
As in Yehoshua 6:15.
As in Bereishis 14:15.
Maharal: This approach explains why they would not challenge Moshe - "Do you yourself not know when the Makah will happen?" Moshe defined the time clearly; just as there would be no ambiguity in saying, for instance, 'The Makah will happen tonight!'
