1)

Why does it say "Aram mi'Kedem [u'Flishtim me'Achor]"?

1.

Rashi #1: Aram harmed them earlier 1 , in the days of Yeho'achaz and Yo'ash; Pelishtim harmed them from in back - they are in the west.

2.

Rashi #2: Aram and Pelishtim used to destroy in Yehudah in the days of Achaz, like it says in Divrei ha'Yamim II, Perek 25; Yeshayah laments over these afflictions of Yisrael and Yehudah.

3.

Radak: Before Pekach reigned, Aram fought Yisrael greatly - "va'Ysimam ke'Afar Ladush" (Melachim II, 13:7). Aram was east of Eretz Yisrael.

4.

Malbim: Also Aram itself, which until now helped you, will come against you from the east.


1

Perhaps Rashi explains that mi'Kedem means before, and also from the east. (PF)

2)

Why does it say "Lo Shav Apo"?

1.

Radak: They did not repent, which would cause Hashem to retract from his anger.

3)

Why does it say "v'Od Yado Netuyah"?

1.

Rashi: [He is still ready to punish] until he will bring Sancheriv against them.

2.

Radak: Hashem's hand is still ready to finish them off, since they did not repent.

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