What is the meaning of "Mikeitz"?
See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim, Rosh: "Miketz" can also mean at the beginning, such as "Miketz Sheva Shanim..." (free your Eved Ivri - Yirmiyah 34:14), where it means 'at the beginning of the seventh year'. Moshav Zekenim - Rashi means that usually, mi'Ketz means at the end. Alternatively, if something has a starting point and an ending point, Ketz can refer to either.
Why does the Torah add the word "Yamim"?
Rashbam: Without "Yamim", it would mean two incomplete years (even one year and a day). "Yamim" always means a complete year. 1
Ha'Emek Davar: ("Yamim" refers to a year.) For a year, Yosef relied on the butler, that he will have the opportunity to tell Pharaoh. After a year, he ceases to think about it (Bava Metzi'a 24b). He was punished to wait a second year, Midah k'Neged Midah. 2
See for example, Vayikra 25:29, 30. Oznayim la'Torah: Consequently, this teaches us that just as Yosef was freed on Rosh Hashanah, so too, did the butler and baker dream on the night of Rosh Hashanah. Refer to 40:5:1:5:1. See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates further.
Ha'Emek Davar did not explicitly say so; it seems that this is his intent. (PF)
On which river was Pharaoh standing? Why does the Torah call it "ha'Ye'or"?
Rashi: Pharaoh dreamt that he was standing on the River Nile, the only one of the four major rivers mentioned in Bereishis (2:10-14) to be called "Ye'or", 1 which means a river from which irrigation canals branch off. 2
Ramban: Onkelos refers to all the major rivers, sometimes as Nahor, sometimes as Ye'or', 3 and irrigation canals as Ye'or (Arisa [exclusively]). 4
Rashi (2:11): In fact, it is synonymous with the River Pishon mentioned there. See Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashi: Because rain falls rarely in Egypt . The Torah also refers to the tributaries as "Ye'orim" - in Shemos 7:19.
Because they are both expressions of light and are rooted in the word 'Or' - See Ramban. In fact, the Pasuk in Daniel, 12:5 refers to the River Chidekel as "Ye'or". The Ramban goes on to prove Onkelos' opinion.
That is why he translates Ye'or here as 'Nahar', and later in Bereishis (7:19) as Ariteihon - See Ramban.
How could Pharaoh possibly be standing on the River?
Seforno: It means on the river bank.
The Vilna Gaon: He dreamt that in keeping with his claim that he was a greater god than the River Nile (which the Egyptians worshipped). 1
Radak: It means near the river, like "v'Alav Mateh Menasheh" (Bamidbar 2:20).
Ha'Emek Davar: He had on ongoing dream (Safek)
Oznayim la'Torah: His was an ongoing dream
Why did Yosef's salvation come through dreams?
Da'as Zekenim: This shows that Hashem is unlike people. A doctor wounds with a knife, and heals with a bandage. Hashem heals through the same matter that brought the affliction (his dreams about his brothers fueled their hatred).
From when were the two years counted?
Rosh, Moshav Zekenim: Do not say that it is after the butler's dream. "Achar" means right after, 1 so Potifar's wife eyed Yosef right after he came to Egypt at the age of 17, and he was 30 when Pharaoh dreamed. I heard that mi'Ketz is after 10 years, just like "mi'Ketz Eser Shanim" said about Avraham (Bereishis 16:3). Yosef was in the pit for 10 years
And "Acharei" is a long time after. (This is like R. Yudan in Bereishis Rabah 44:5. Rav Huna says oppositely there.)
Refer to 39:5:151:1, refer to 40:1:151:2*.
How can we say Birkas ha'Torah for three verses? We find three verses from which we do not learn Halachos, Isur or Heter, e.g. Pharaoh's dream!
Moshav Zekenim (43:7, citing R. Yehudah ha'Chasid): We do learn from it, that if a Nochri's dream affects a country with Yisraelim, we fast due to it, even on Shabbos!
Why does it say "va'Yhi", which is an expression of pain (Megilah 10b)?
Ohr ha'Chayim #1: This begins causing the exile to Egypt.
Ohr ha'Chayim #2: This informed of the famine that would come. It is as if Hashem is pained due to affliction of His world, like Chazal expounded (Megilah 10b) from "v'Lo Karav Zeh El Zeh" (Hashem did not want to hear the angels' Shirah when the Egyptians were drowning).
Ohr ha'Chayim #3: Yosef was pained for an extra two years in prison.
Why does it say "v''Pharaoh Cholem" (present tense)?
Ohr ha'Chayim #1: It is connected to the previous Parshah. Sar ha'Mashkim dreamed, and did not want to tell Pharaoh about Yosef. Therefore, also Pharaoh dreams, and he was forced to tell.
Ohr ha'Chayim #2: For two years, Pharaoh had this dream, but did not know (remember). At the end of two years, he dreamed and did not forget. 1
Ohr ha'Chayim #3: During the dream, he realized that it is a dream based on the bizarre things he saw. Therefore, he knew that it is not imagination, rather, a prophecy from above.
Seforno: Amidst dreaming about what he thought about [during the day], he also dreamed [a prophecy from Hashem,] that he was on the river bank
Why does it say "v''Pharaoh Cholem"? Normally, the Torah puts the verb before the subject!
Malbim #1: This is to stress the subject. The Sarim dreamed, but this did not help Yosef at all. Now Pharaoh dreamed, and this helped Yosef.
Malbim #2: The dream was of Hashem. The interpreters could not interpret it, for they thought that it is an individual's dream. The subject is first ti stress that Pharaoh (the king) is Kelali (a national figure); the dream pertains to the Klal.
