Prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
of Kollel Iyun Hadaf of Yerushalayim
daf@dafyomi.co.il
http://www.dafyomi.co.il
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1)
(a) Our Mishnah declares Kasher a Chatas ha'Of that the Kohen brings below the Chut ha'Sikra 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas. What does 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas' mean?
(b) What is then the Chidush (See Tosfos DH Chatas ha'Of')?
(c) What does the Tana then say about a Chatas ha'Of that the Kohen brings ...
1. ... below the Chut ha'Sikra 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Olah' or 'ke'Ma'aseh Olah le'Shem Olah'?
2. ... above the Chut ha'Sikra, even 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas'?
(d) What does the Tana mean by 'ke'Ma'aseh Olah'?
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2)
(a) What does the Tana say about an Olas ha'Of that the Kohen brings ...
1. ... above the Chut ha'Sikra 'ke'Ma'aseh Olah le'Shem Chatas'?
2. ... above the Chut ha'Sikra 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Olah', or 'ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas'?
(b) And what does he say about an Olas ha'Of that the Kohen brings below the Chut ha'Sikra?
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3)
(a) The Tana concludes 've'Chulan Ein Metam'in Begadim be'Beis ha'Beliyah'. What is the significance of this type of Tum'ah?
(b) What is he then coming to teach us?
(c) What does the Tana add to this ruling?
(d) The only exception to this is 'Chatas ha'Of she'As'ah Lematah le'Shem Chatas'. Why is that?
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4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
(a) Initially, we establish the Reisha of the Mishnah 'Chatas ha'Of she'As'ah le'Matah' in the case of 'Ma'aseh Olah le'Shem Chatas', by Melikah (where the Kohen cut both Simanim). How do we deal with the problem that our Mishnah, which rules that it is Pasul, will then not go like Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?
(b) What alternative do we therefore present to explain 'Ma'aseh Olah' which will enable us to establish the Mishnah like Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?
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(a) Why can the change in the Seifa 'As'ah Lema'alah ke'Ma'aseh Kulan, Pesulah' (incorporating Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas'), not refer to the Kohen's having performed the Melikah above the Chut ha'Sikra?
(b) Then what is it referring to?
(c) On what grounds do we refute the proof that seeing as the change in the Seifa refers to the Haza'ah, so too, does the change in the Reisha?
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(a) In the Seifa, we learned 'Olas ha'Of she'Asah Lema'alah ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Olah, Pesulah'. What might 'Ma'aseh Chatas' refer to, besides the Melikah of only one Si'man?
(b) We object to the latter interpretation however, because then the Seifa (ve'Chulan ... 'u'Mo'alin bah') would not go like Rebbi Yehoshua. What does Rebbi Yehoshua say (in the following Mishnah)?
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(a) Rebbi Eliezer ('Mo'alin bah') and Rebbi Yehoshua ('Ein Mo'alin bah') in the following Mishnah, actually argue over 'Olas ha'Of she'Asah Lematah ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas'. Why must 'ke'Ma'asesh Chatas' refer to the Melikah (i.e. only one Siman) and not to the Mitzuy (i.e. which the Kohen omitted)?
(b) We just established the Seifa ('Olas ha'Of ... Lematah ke'Ma'aseh Chatas') by Melikah. How did we establish a. the Reisha ('Chatas ha'Of ... Lema'alah le'Shem Olah') and b. the Metzi'asa ('Olas ha'Of ... Lema'alah ke'Ma'aseh Chatas')?
(c) And how do we deal with this seemingly strange phenomenon?
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(a) In the case 'Olas ha'Of she'Asah le'Matah ke'Ma'aseh Chatas le'Shem Chatas', on what grounds does Rebbi Eliezer hold 'Mo'alin bah'?
(b) He tries to prove his opinion from a 'Kal va'Chomer' from Chatas. Which 'Kal va'Chomer'?
(c) How does Rebbi Yehoshua refute this proof? Why can one not prove a 'Chatas le'Shem Olah' from an 'Olah le'Shem Chatas'?
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(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer then try to prove his point from Kodshei Kodshim that were Shechted in the south (as Shelamim)?
(b) On what basis does Rebbi Yehoshua refute this proof too?
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