1)

(a)What does our Mishnah rule with regard to Kabalah, Holachah and Zerikah she'Lo li'Sheman by a Pesach or a Chatas?

(b)What does the Tana mean when he extends this ruling to ...

1. ... li'Sheman ve'she'Lo li'Sheman?

2. ... she'Lo li'Sheman ve'li'Sheman?

(c)With which of the above Avodos does Rebbi Shimon disagree?

(d)Why is that?

(e)What distinction does Rebbi Elazar draw between a Holachah be'Makom she'Hu Tzarich Lehalech' and a Holachah be'Makom she'Eino Tzarich Lehalech (which will be explained in the Sugya)?

1)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that - Kabalah, Holachah and Zerikah she'Lo li'Sheman invalidate a Pesach or a Chatas (just like Shechitah does).

(b)When the Tana extends this ruling to ...

1. ... li'Sheman ve'she'Lo li'Sheman, he means that - one performed any of the above Avodos having in mind le'Shem Pesach and le'Shem Shelamim (in that order).

2. ... she'Lo li'Sheman ve'li'Sheman that - he performed them le'Shem Shelamim and le'Shem Pesach.

(c)Rebbi Shimon disagrees with the Tana Kama regarding - Holachah, which he maintains, does not render the Korban Pasul with a Machsheves she'Lo li'Shemo ...

(d)... because it is dispensable (since it is not necessary if he is standing beside the Mizbe'ach).

(e)Rebbi Elazar - invalidates a Machshavah Pesulah by a Holachah be'Makom she'Hu Tzarich Le'halech, but validates it by a Holachah be'Makom she'Eino Tzarich Le'halech (a distinction which will be explained in the Sugya).

2)

(a)In the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'shachat es ben ha'Bakar, Ve'hikrivu b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim es ha'Dam", how does the Beraisa interpret the word "Ve'hikrivu"?

(b)What is the Pasuk then coming to teach us?

(c)And what do we learn from "b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim"?

(d)On what basis do we suggest that "Ve'hikrivu" really means 'Zerikah'?

(e)How do we then know that it does not mean ...

1. ... Zerikah?

2. ... Holachah?

2)

(a)In the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'shachat es ben ha'Bakar, Ve'hikrivu b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim es ha'Dam", the Beraisa interprets the word "Ve'hikrivu" with reference to - the Kabalas ha'Dam ...

(b)... which teaches us that Kabalas ha'Dam requires a K'li Shareis) ...

(c)... and from "b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim" we learn that - it also requires Kasher Kohanim who are wearing the four Bigdei Kehunah.

(d)We suggest that "Ve'hikrivu" really means 'Zerikah' - because the word implies bringing near to the Mizbe'ach (which is what Zerikah does to the blood).

(e)We know that it does not mean ...

1. ... Zerikah - since the Torah then writes "Ve'zarku ... " independently.

2. ... Holachah - because it is dispensable (though the Torah nevertheless implies it by using the word "Ve'hikrivu" [as we just learned]).

3)

(a)Rebbi Akiva disagrees with the Tana Kama's D'rashah (from "b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim"). What does he learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah "b'nei Aharon" "b'nei Aharon" (from the Pasuk in Bamidbar "Eileh Sh'mos B'nei Aharon ... " [in connection with Elazar and Isamar])?

(b)And what does he learn from "asher Milei Yadam Lechahen" written there?

(c)What did Rebbi Tarfon comment about the corollary between Kabalah and Zerikah? What bothered him?

3)

(a)Rebbi Akiva disagrees with the Tana Kama's D'rashah (from "b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim") - and he learns it (the Din of Kasher Kohanim by Kabalah) from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "b'nei Aharon" "b'nei Aharon" (from the Pasuk in Bamidbar "Eileh Sh'mos B'nei Aharon ... "), which refers to Elazar and Isamar, who were Kasher Kohanim.

(b)And he learns from "asher Milei Yadam Lechahen" written there" - that Kabalah also requires Bigdei Kehunah (as this is what "Lechahen" implies).

(c)Rebbi Tarfon commented about the corollary between Kabalah and Zerikah - which seemingly clashes with his Kabalah, that he heard a distinction between them (only he couldn't recall what it was).

4)

(a)Rebbi Akiva put Rebbi Tarfon's mind at rest, by presenting three distinctions between the two (Kabalah and Zerikah), one to do with Machshavah, one with Chutz and one with Pesulin. Which three distinctions was he referring to?

(b)Why is Kabalah ...

1. ... ba'Chutz not Chayav Kareis?

2. ... via Pesulin not Chayav Kareis?

(c)Why was Rebbi Tarfon so impressed with Rebbi Akiva?

(d)What did he subsequently declare?

4)

(a)Rebbi Akiva put Rebbi Tarfon's mind at rest, by presenting three distinctions between the two, one to do with Machshavah - that a Pasul Machshavah invalidates by Zerikah; One with Chutz - Someone who makes Zerikah ba'Chutz is Chayav Kareis, and one with Pesulin - If Pesulin perform Zerikah, they are Chayav, all of which do not pertain to Kabalah.

(b)Kabalah ...

1. ... ba'Chutz is not Chayav Kareis - because there is no Pasuk to that effect (like there is by Shechitah and Zerikah).

2. ... via Pesulim is not subject to Kareis either - because it is not an Avodah Tamah (a final Avodah, since it is followed by Zerikah).

(c)Rebbi Tarfon was impressed with Rebbi Akiva - because he (Rebbi Tarfon) had learned it and forgotten it, and along came Rebbi Akiva and worked out on his own what he had so diligently learned and forgotten.

(d)He subsequently declared that - to part from Rebbi Akiva was equivalent to parting from life itself.

5)

(a)In any event, Rebbi Akiva clearly states that Machshavah by Kabalah does not render the Korban Pasul. How do we reconcile this with our Mishnah, which holds that it does?

(b)How do we prove this from the Lashon in our Mishnah she'ha'Zevach Nifsal be'Arba'ah Avodos?

(c)Given that in the Pasuk in Tzav "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel mi'Besar Zevach Shelamav Lo Yeratzeh", "Lo Yeratzeh" refers predominantly to Zerikah, what does the Beraisa learn from the Lashon "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel"?

(d)How does the Tana extrapolate it from there?

5)

(a)In any event, Rebbi Akiva clearly states that Machshavah by Kabalah does not render the Korban Pasul. We reconcile this with our Mishnah, which holds that it does - by establishing the Beraisa by Pigul (a Machshavah of she'Lo bi'Zemano or she'Lo bi'Mekomo'), whereas our Mishnah is speaking about a Machshevah she'Lo li'Shemo'.

(b)And we prove this from the Lashon in our Mishnah, which states she'ha'Zevach Nifsal (and not Mispagel) be'Arba'ah Avodos.

(c)Given that in the Pasuk in Tzav "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel mi'Besar Zevach Shelamav Lo Yeratzeh", "Lo Yeratzeh" refers predominantly to Zerikah, the Beraisa learns Shechitah and Kabalah are also subject to Pigul - from the words "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel".

(d)The Tana extrapolates it from there - because the double Lashon "He'achol Ye'achel" indicates that any Avodos which bring the Korban to a Heter Achilah, are included.

6)

(a)Which other two Avodos do we suggest ought to be included in the above list?

(b)We reject this suggestion however, based on the Pasuk there "ha'Makriv oso Lo Yechashev", which teaches us the Din of Pigul by Zerikah. What is strange about this?

(c)How do we then go on to refute the current suggestion from there?

(d)What do we now learn from there?

6)

(a)We suggest that - Shefichas Shirayim and Haktaras Eimurin (pouring the remains of the blood on to the Yesod and burning the fat-pieces on the Mizbe'ach) ought to be included in the above list.

(b)We reject this suggestion however, based on the Pasuk there "ha'Makriv oso Lo Yechashev", which teaches us the Din of Pigul by Zerikah. This is strange - because we already know that from the previous Pasuk, where "Lo Yeratzeh" refers directly to Zerikah (as we explained), even if it does incorporate Shechitah and Kabalah, too.

(c)Consequently - this is a case of a Davar she'Hayah bi'Chelal ve'Yatza min ha'Klal Le'lamed ... ...

(d)... which teaches us that - whatever is not an Avodah crucial to the Kaparah (like Zerikah [such as Shefichas Shirayim and Haktaras Eimurin, which are dispensable, Bedieved]) is not subject to Pigul.

7)

(a)In any event, we see that Kabalah is subject to Pigul. How do we reconcile this with Rebbi Akiva, who learned in the previous Beraisa that it is not?

(b)With regard to the Beraisa, which precludes Shefichas Shirayim ... from the Din of Pigul, a certain Chacham queried Rava from another Beraisa. What does the Tana there learn from the double Lashon "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel"?

(c)What did Rava answer him? When is Shefichas Shirayim subject to Pigul, and when is it not?

(d)What is the guiding principle in this matter? At which point must one think, and what must one think, for Pigul to take effect?

7)

(a)In any event, we see that Kabalah is subject to Pigul, which we reconcile with Rebbi Akiva, who learned in the previous Beraisa that it is not - by presenting two interpretations of Kabalah being subject to Pigul: 1. that one Shechts in order to receive the blood tomorrow (which is not Pigul); 2. that one receives the blood in order to pour the remainder of the blood on to the Y'sod tomorrow (which is).

(b)With regard to the Beraisa, which precludes Shefichas Shirayim ... from the Din of Pigul, a certain Chacham asked Rava from another Beraisa, which learns from the double Lashon "ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel" that - the Torah incorporates two kinds of eating in the Din of Pigul, what a person (the owner or the Kohen) eats, and what the Mizbe'ach eats (Zerikas ha'Dam, Shefichas ha'Dam and Haktaras Eimurim).

(c)Rava answered him (in the same vein as we just explained Kabalas ha'Dam) that - there are two interpretation of 'Shefichas ha'Dam being subject to Pigul'\: Shefichas Shirayim ... is subject to Pigul if one thinks during the Shechitah or the Zerikah that he will pour the remainder of the blood or burn the Eimurim tomorrow; but it is not, if the Kohen thinks whilst pouring the blood or burning the Emurim, that the Korban will be eaten tomorrow.

(d)The guiding principle in this matter is that - it is Pigul only if, whilst performing an indispensable Avodah, the Kohen has in mind either that the Korban will be eaten or the Mizbe'ach will receive its due, after its allotted time (or outside its allotted location).

13b----------------------------------------13b

8)

(a)With regard to the Chata'os Penimiyos, the Torah writes in Vayikra "Ve'taval ha'Kohen Etzba'o ... ". What did Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya comment about Tevilas Etzba by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos?

(b)How did bar Pada query this ruling (from the source of Pigul), when Ilfa repeated this Chidush in front of him?

(c)The Mishnah says in the second Perek that if, after a Korban Chatas has been Shechted with thoughts of Pigul, the Kohen makes Kabalah or Holachah she'Lo li'Shemo, the person who eats it is not Chayav Chatas. Why is that?

(d)Why then, if the same occurs with a Shelamim, does the Din of Pigul remain intact?

8)

(a)With regard to the Chata'os Penimiyos, the Torah writes "Ve'taval ha'Kohen Etzba'o ... ". Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya commented that Tevilas Etzba by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos - is subject to Pigul.

(b)When Ilfa repeated this Chidush in front of bar Pada, the latter queried it - inasmuch as we learn all cases of Pigul from Shelamim, and there is no such thing as Tevilas Etzba by Shelamim.

(c)The Mishnah rules in the second Perek that in a case where, after a Korban Chatas has been Shechted with thoughts of Pigul, the Kohen makes Kabalah or Holachah she'Lo li'Shemo, the person who eats it is not Chayav Chatas - because Pigul is only effective if the Kohen goes on to sacrifice the Korban as if it was Kasher, but not if he then performs an Avodah that would normally render the animal Pasul.

(d)Nevertheless, if the same occurs with a Shelamim, the Din of Pigul remains intact - because she'Lo li'Shemo does not invalidate a Shelamim.

9)

(a)If, as we explained earlier, we learn Pigul by Chatas from Pigul by Shelamim, then how will we explain the difference between the Din of Chatas and that of Shelamim that we just cited?

(b)How will this vindicate Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya?

(c)In a repeat of the Sugya, Resh Lakish (who holds like bar Pada) asked Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi (who holds like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya) the same Kashya as bar Pada asked Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya. Only there, Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina concludes that we do indeed learn Chatas from Shelamim. Where do we find by Shelamim that a subsequent Machsheves P'sul negates the Machsheves Pigul that preceded it (even though a Machsheves she'Lo li'Shemo does not)?

(d)How does Rebbi Yirmiyah query this Limud? Why can we not learn the Din of she'Lo li'Shemo (by Chatas) from Chutz li'Mekomo (by Shelamim)?

9)

(a)Despite the fact that, as we explained earlier, we learn Pigul by Chatas from Pigul by Shelamim, the difference between the Din of Chatas and that of Shelamim that we just cited is possible - because we do not learn Chatas from Shelamim directly, but from a Ribuy ("ve'Im He'achol Ye'achel") written by Shelamim ...

(b)... thereby vindicating Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya - in that we can now learn the Dinim of Chatas independently, without having to come on to Shelamim.

(c)In a repeat of the Sugya, Resh Lakish (who holds like bar Pada) asked Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi (who holds like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya) the same Kashya as bar Pada asked Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya. Only there, Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina concludes that we do indeed learn Chatas from Shelamim - not from she'Lo li'Shemo, but from a Machshavah of Chutz li'Mekomo (which renders Shelamim Pasul, even though a Machsheves she'Lo li'Shemo does not).

(d)Rebbi Yirmiyah however, queries this Limud. We cannot learn the Din of she'Lo li'Shemo (by Chatas) from Chutz li'Mekomo (by Shelamim), he argues - because only Chutz li'Mekomo (which applies to all Kodshim), invalidates the Pigul by a Shelamim; but perhaps she'Lo li'Shemo (which does not), will not invalidate the Pigul by a Chatas.

10)

(a)So we learn Chatas from Shelamim with a Mah Matzinu from Shelamim, via a set of principles. How (via which principle) do we then learn ...

1. ... that she'Lo li'Shemo by a Chatas negates the Pigul that preceded it?

2. ... that Tevilas Etzba renders Pigul by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos?

(b)Rav Mari tries to prove this from a Mishnah in Menachos. What does the Tana say there if a Kohen who is performing the Kemitzah places the Minchah into a K'li Shareis, takes it to the Mizbe'ach and burns it on the Mizbe'ach? What must he have in mind to render the Minchah Pigul?

(c)To which four Avodos of a Zevach do these four Avodos correspond?

(d)If we can learn the other three from the corresponding Avodos by a Shelamim, what is the problem with learning Matan Kometz bi'Cheli from Kabalas ha'Dam?

10)

(a)We therefore learn Chatas from Shelamim with a Mah Matzinu from Shelamim via a set of principles. We learn ...

1. ... that she'Lo li'Shemo by a Chatas negates the Pigul that preceded it - because, like Chutz li'Mekomo by a Shelamim, it renders Pasul a Chatas (so we learn something that renders Pasul from something that renders Pasul).

2. ... that Tevilas Etzba renders Pigul by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos - because, like the four Avodos by Shelamim, it is crucial to the Avodah of a Chatas Penimis (so we learn something that is crucial from something that is crucial).

(b)Rav Mari tries to prove this from a Mishnah in Menachos, where the Tana rules - that if a Kohen performing the Kemitzah places the Minchah into a K'li Shareis, takes it to the Mizbe'ach and burns it on the Mizbe'ach - it is subject to Pigul, if he has in mind to either burn the Kometz or to eat the remainder of the Minchah, on the following day.

(c)These four Avodos correspond to the Shechitah (Kemitzah), Kabalas ha'Dam (placing the Minchah into a K'li Shareis), Holachas ha'Dam (taking it to the Mizbe'ach) and the Zerikah (burning it on the Mizbe'ach) of a Zevach.

(d)Although we can learn the other three from the corresponding Avodos by a Shelamim quite comfortably, the problem with learning Matan Kometz bi'Cheli from Kabalas ha'Dam is that - whereas the former requires an act, the latter occurs automatically.

11)

(a)What does Rav Mari therefore learn from the Mishnah in Menachos, regarding the Din of Tevilas Etzba by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos?

(b)On what grounds do we refute Rav Mari's proof?

(c)One Beraisa states Tevilas Etzba Mefageles be'Chatas, whilst another Beraisa states Lo Mefageles ve'Lo Mispageles. How do we initially interpret the Machlokes?

(d)And we counter that both Beraisos may well consider Tevilas Etzba like Holachah, and the author of the Beraisa Lo Mefageles ... is Rebbi Shimon. What does Rebbi Shimon say?

11)

(a)Rav Mari therefore learns from the Mishnah in Menachos that - we can derive one indispensable Avodah by one Korban (such as Tevilas Etzba by Chata'os ha'Penimiyos) from an indispensable Avodah by another Korban (such as Holachah by a Shelamim), even though they are different in other respects.

(b)We refute Rav Mari's proof however because - whereas placing the Kometz in the K'li is the exact equivalent of receiving the blood in the vessel, in which case we can learn one from the other (irrespective of the fact that one requires an act whilst the other occurs automatically), Tevilas Etzba and Holachah are two different Avodos, in which case we should not be able to learn one from the other.

(c)One Beraisa states Tevilas Etzba Mefageles be'Chatas, whilst another Beraisa states Lo Mefageles ve'Lo Mispageles. Initially, we explain that - the first Beraisa considers Tevilas Etzba'o like Holachah (like the opinion of Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya, and those who hold like him), whereas the second Beraisa does not (like bar Pada, and those who hold like him).

(d)And we counter that both Beraisos may well hold that Tevilas Etzba renders Pigul like Holachah, and the author of the Beraisa Lo Mefageles ... is Rebbi Shimon, who holds that - Holachah is not subject to Pigul (as we learned in the previous Mishnah).

12)

(a)What problem do we have with establishing the latter Beraisa like Rebbi Shimon, based on the fact that we are talking about Pigul in the Heichal?

(b)So we establish both Beraisos like the Rabbanan. How then, do we explain Lo Mefageles ... in the second Beraisa? What sort of Chata'os is the Tana talking about?

(c)We query that however with P'shita. What do we mean by that?

12)

(a)The problem with establishing the latter Beraisa like Rebbi Shimon is the fact that we are talking about Pigul in the Heichal, in which case - the Tana would not have had to confine the statement to Tevilas Etzba, seeing as in his opinion, there is no Pigul other than on the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon.

(b)So we establish both Beraisos like the Rabbanan. And we ascribe Lo Mefageles ... in the second Beraisa to the fact that - the Tana is talking about a Chatas Chitzonah (whose blood is sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon).

(c)We query that however with P'shita - because, seeing as the Torah does not write Vetaval by a Chatas Chitzonah, why would we even think that Tevilas Etzba is subject to Pigul?

13)

(a)In fact, when the Torah writes (by Chatas Chitzonah) "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o", it refers to Kabalas ha'Dam. How do we know that it does not refer to Tevilas Etzba'o.

(b)Then why might we have thought that it does?

(c)Why then, is Tevilas Etzba'o not subject to Pigul?

13)

(a)In fact, when the Torah writes (by Chatas Chitzonah) "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o", it is referring to Kabalas ha'Dam, and not to Tevilas Etzba'o - because then it ought to have written "Vetaval ha'Kohen".

(b)We might nevertheless have thought that it does - seeing as "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen ... " also implies that the Kohen has to take blood on his finger, and if a monkey would do it for him, he would be obligated to do it again himself. This suggests that Tevilas Etzba is an Avodah that is crucial to the Chatas, and which should therefore be subject to Pigul.

(c)Yet Tevilas Etzba'o is not subject to Pigul - because since the Torah does not specifically write "Ve'taval", even though it is crucial to the Chatas, it is not considered an Avodah (but a means of performing the Avodah, something like a Hechsher Mitzvah).

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