1)

(a)In a Pasuk in Daniel, Gavriel (the angel) after informing Daniel that his Inuyim were accepted, added that he was permitted to return on account of him. What does that mean?

(b)What did Yechezkel see twenty-five men doing between the Ulam and the Mizbe'ach, after a hand had carried him there by his hair?

(c)If they were bowing down to the sun in the east, why does the Pasuk in Yechezkel find it necessary to add that "their backs were to the Heichal"?

(d)What did Hash-m reply when Michael argued that at least the best among them should be saved (see Tosfos Yeshanim DH 'Hareini')?

1)

(a)In the Pasuk in Daniel, Gavriel (the angel) after informing Daniel that his Inuyim were accepted, added that he (Gavriel) had been permitted to return on account of him. This refers to the occasion when Gavriel was expelled from his position in Heaven for disobeying Hash-m's command (as will be explained shortly). He was only permitted to return when he spoke up in defense of Yisrael by referring to the righteousness of Daniel.

(b)After a hand had transported Yechezkel to the Beis Hamikdash by his hair - he saw twenty-five men between the Ulam and the Mizbe'ach, bowing down towards the sun with their backs to the west.

(c)The Pasuk in Yechezkel finds it necessary to add that their backs faced the west - to teach us that they were actually defecating in the direction of the Kodesh ha'Kodashim.

(d)When the Angel Michael argued that at least the best among them should be saved - Hash-m replied that He would kill them as well; because they too, were guilty, for not rebuking those who sinned.

2)

(a)Who was the Ish Levush ha'Badim?

(b)What was he told to do?

(c)Why did they lash him (with sixty flashes of lightning)?

(d)Dubiel took his place. Who was Dubiel?

2)

(a)The 'Ish Levush ha'Badim' - was the Angel Gavriel.

(b)He was told to take two hands-full of burning coals from among the angels and to scatter it over Yerushalayim (to cause the Churban).

(c)They lashed him with sixty flashes of lightning - because now that he did what Hash-m told him to do (it would have been in order had he not, on the basis that Hash-m would retract from the evil decree), a. he should have done it directly, and not asked Michael to hand him the coals (though had he done so, Yerushalayim would have been completely destroyed); and b. because he reported the completion of his Shelichus - and one does not report bad news.

(d)He was replaced by Dubiel - the angel of Persia.

3)

(a)For how long did Dubiel re-place Gavriel?

(b)What did the Persians gain on account of this?

(c)On what grounds did Gavriel initially attempt to prevent Dubiel from having the Talmidei-Chachamim pay the Persians taxes?

(d)His initial request was ignored. On what grounds did he succeed? Whose merits did he bring Before Hash-m? How did Hash-m respond?

3)

(a)Dubiel re-placed Gavriel - for twenty-one days (a prominent period of punishment for Yisrael).

(b)As a result, twenty-one kings and twenty-one ports came under the Persians' jurisdiction.

(c)Gavriel initially attempted to prevent Dubiel from having the Talmidei-Chachamim pay the Persians taxes - because even their wives would shake sleep from their eyes (waiting to greet their husbands upon their return from the Beis-ha'Medrash).

(d)His initial request was ignored. When however, he cited the merits of Daniel, who would outweigh all of the wise gentiles, Hash-m commended Gavriel for speaking out on behalf of Yisrael, and rewarded him by allowing him to return to his former post.

4)

(a)Some say that the letters containing the decrees (obligating the Talmidei-Chachamim to pay head-taxes) were not yet sealed when Gavriel tried to force them away from Dubiel. What happened next?

(b)What is the second version of the story?

(c)And what was the outcome of the above tussle?

(d)And what happened when Gavriel, foreseeing that after Persia, Yisrael would become subservient to the cruel Greeks, prayed that this should not happen?

4)

(a)Some say that the letters of Dubiel (obligating the Talmidei-Chachamim to pay head-taxes) were not yet sealed when Gavriel tried to take them by force. So he swallowed them to prevent Gavriel from obtaining them.

(b)According to the second version of the story - the letters were already sealed when Gavriel entered. However, when Dubiel swallowed them, some of the letters were erased.

(c)The outcome of the above tussle - was that some Talmidei-Chachamim subsequently had to pay taxes, and others did not.

(d)When the angel of Greece entered, Gavriel had to leave, because that decree had already been sealed. No amount of pleading on his part was effective.

5)

(a)Evyasar ha'Kohen was Chayav Misah for joining in the rebellion of Adoniyahu. What did Shlomo ha'Melech order him to do? Why did he not kill him outright?

(b)Why can we not prove from the Pasuk in Shmuel, which describes the Inuyim of David and his followers (as they fled from Avshalom) as "Ra'ev, v'Ayef v'Tzamei", that bathing is called an Inuy? What might "Ayef"" mean, if not from bathing?

(c)What do we finally prove from the Pasuk in Mishlei "Mayim Karim al Nefesh Ayefah"? How do we then know that "Ayef" does not refer to drinking (See Tosfos Yeshanim DH 've'Dilma')?

5)

(a)Evyasar ha'Kohen was Chayav Misah for joining Adoniyahu, in his attempted coup d'etat against his father, David ha'Melech. Shlomo ha'Melech ordered him to go to his property in Anasos and to remain there. He did not kill him outright - because he had suffered exile alongside David, when he fled from his other son Avshalom.

(b)We cannot prove from the Pasuk in Shmuel, which describes the Inuyim of David and his followers (as they fled from Avshalom) as "Ra'ev, v'Ayef v'Tzamei" that bathing is called an Inuy - because "Ayef" could also mean from going bare-footed.

(c)We finally prove from the Pasuk in Mishlei "Mayim Karim al Nefesh Ayefah" - that "Ayef" in Shmuel means, not from not wearing shoes, but from not bathing. And it cannot refer to not drinking, because the Pasuk writes "al Nefesh Ayefah", and not "beNefesh Ayefah".

6)

(a)Why is there no proof from the Pasuk in Shmuel "v'David Oleh b'Ma'aleh ha'Zeisim ... v'Yachef" (still in connection with the Inuyim of David), that walking barefoot is considered an Inuy? If "Yachef" does not mean barefoot, then what does it mean?

(b)Yeshayah was not used to riding on a horse. Why then, is there no proof from the Pasuk written in connection with Hash-m's command for him to display Inuy, where the Pasuk writes "Vaya'as Ken Haloch Arum v'Yachef"?

(c)Why can "Yachef" in fact, not mean barefoot?

(d)We finally learn that going barefoot is considered an Inuy from the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu "Min'i Raglech mi'Yachef, u'Geronayich mi'Tzim'ah". How do we interpret this Pasuk?

6)

(a)There is no proof from the Pasuk in Shmuel "v'David Oleh b'Ma'aleh ha'Zeisim ... v'Yachef" that walking barefoot is considered an Inuy - because "Yachef could mean without a horse or a staff.

(b)Yeshayah was not used to riding on a horse. Yet there is no proof from the Pasuk written in connection with Hash-m's command for him to display Inuy, where the Pasuk writes "Vaya'as Ken Haloch Arum v'Yachef" - because it may mean that he walked with patched shoes.

(c)In fact, Yachef cannot mean literally, bare-foot - no more than "Arum" can mean naked. Just as "Arum" must mean with patched clothes, so too, must "Yachef" mean with patched shoes.

(d)We finally learn that going barefoot is considered an Inuy from the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu "Min'i Raglech mi'Yachef, u'Geronayich mi'Tzim'ah" - which we interpret to mean: "Refrain from sin, so that your feet will not have to walk barefoot; hold your tongue from speaking idle chatter, so that your throat will not have to suffer thirst".

77b----------------------------------------77b

7)

(a)We learn that refraining from Tashmish is considered an Inuy from the words of Lavan in Vayetzei "Im Te'aneh es Benosai, v'Im Tikach Nashim". What do the two phrases respectively, mean?

(b)How do we know that "v'Im Tikach Nashim" is not simply an explanation of "Im Te'aneh es Benosai" (in which case the proof from here, that refraining from Tashmish is considered an Inuy falls away)?

(c)The Gemara then suggests that both phrases refer to not taking Tzaros (rival wives) to Rachel and Leah. What does this mean?

(d)And we answer that, in that case, the order of the phrases should have been inverted. Why?

7)

(a)We learn that refraining from Tashmish is considered an Inuy from the words of Lavan in Vayetzei "Im Te'aneh es Benosai, v'Im Tikach Nashim". "Im Te'aneh es Benosai" - from Tashmish (to grant them their due Onah); "v'Im Tikach Nashim" - not to marry any other wives.

(b)"v'Im Tikach Nashim" cannot simply be an explanation of "Im Te'aneh es Benosai" - because then, the Pasuk would have written "Im Tokach Nashim", and not ve'Im ... ".

(c)The Gemara then suggests that both phrases refer to not taking Tzaros (rival wives) to Rachel and Leah - one to taking Bilhah and Zilpah (who were also daughters of Lavan, from a concubine), meaning that he should not put them on a par with Rachel and Leah, and the other, that he should not take any other wives from the outside.

(d)And we answer that, in that case, the order of the phrases should have been inverted - because, surely, it would be worse for Rachel and Leah if Yakov were to take strangers from the outside, than to marry Bilhah and Zilpah and treat them as equals. Consequently, Lavan should have mentioned the worst scenario first, as that is the way one normally speaks ('Lo Zu, Af Zu').

8)

(a)It appears from the Pasuk written in connection with Shechem's abduction of Dinah "va'Yishkav Osah va'Ye'aneha", that Tashmish itself can be an Inuy. In that case, how can we use the same term to describe refraining from Tashmish as an Inuy?

(b)How does Rashi prove that the Gemara's answer cannot mean that he had performed sodomy with her?

8)

(a)The Pasuk written in connection with Shechem's abduction of Dinah "va'Yishkav Osah va'Ye'aneha" is not referring to the Inuy of Tashmish - but to his withholding Tashmish from her, because, once he had abducted and raped Dinah, she had a desire for him, and after the initial rape, he refrained from further Tashmish.

(b)Rashi proves that the Gemara's answer cannot mean that he had abnormal relations with her - because, if it did, then why can we not also explain Lavan's request of Yakov in the same way? And besides, the Gemara ought then to have said 'she'Inah be'Bi'os Acheiros', and not miBi'os Acheiros'.

9)

(a)May one wash a part of one's body on Yom Kippur?

(b)When is one permitted to wash or even to take a bath?

(c)It is forbidden to anoint even a part of one's body. Who is permitted to anoint ...

1. ... a part of his body?

2. ... even his whole body?

(d)A woman is permitted to wash one hand to feed her baby. Why ...

1. ... does her hand need to be washed in the first place?

2. ... did they make Shamai wash both his hands in order to feed his baby?

9)

(a)Washing even part of one's body on Yom Kippur is forbidden, too.

(b)One is permitted to wash or even to take a bath - if one is very dirty.

(c)It is forbidden to anoint even a part of one's body. Someone who ...

1. ... has scabs on his head may anoint his head.

2. ... is ill, may even anoint his whole body if need be.

(d)A woman is permitted to wash one hand to feed her baby.

1. Her hand needs to be washed - because of the Ru'ach Ra'ah that appears on the finger-tips in the morning. Since, if not for the need to feed her child, the woman had no reason to wash her hands in the morning (see Tosfos DH 'Mishum'), she now became obligated to wash it before doing so.

2. They made Shamai wash both of his hands in order to feed his baby - to ensure that people would comply with the Halachah, and not follow in the footsteps of Shamai, and not wash at all.

10)

(a)Whom does the Tana of the Beraisa permit to wade through water even up to his neck on Yom Kippur?

(b)On what grounds did Rav Ashi disagree with Rav Yitzchak bar bar Chanah, who proved that even a Rebbe may wade through water to visit his Talmid, from the fact that Ze'iri did so when he went to visit Rav Chiya bar Ashi his Talmid?

(c)Why did Rava give express permission to the residents of Eiver Yemina to wade through water on Yom Kippur?

(d)Why did Abaye disagree, when Rav Yosef permitted the people of Tarbu to wade through water to go and hear the Derashah on Yom Kippur, but not to return?

10)

(a)The Tana of the Beraisa permits someone who is on his way to greet his father, his Rebbi or anyone who is greater than he is in Torah, to wade through water on Yom Kippur.

(b)Rav Ashi disagreed with Rav Yitzchak bar bar Chanah, who proved that even a Rebbe may wade through water to visit his Talmid, from the fact that Ze'iri did so when he went to visit Rav Chiya bar Ashi his Talmid - because, according to him, it was Rav Chiya bar Ashi who waded through water on his way to visit his Rebbe, Ze'iri.

(c)Rava gave express permission to the residents of Eiver Yemina to wade through water on Yom Kippur - in order to guard their fruit.

(d)Abaye disagreed, when Rav Yosef permitted the people of Tarbu to wade through water to go and hear the Derashah on Yom Kippur, but not on the return journey - in future, he argued, they would not want to go and listen to the Derashah (since they were not able to return). Consequently, once they are permitted to wade through water on the outward journey, they must also be permitted to do so on the return journey.

11)

(a)On what condition did Rav Yehudah permit Rami bar Papa to wade through the river to ask him and his son Rav Shmuel some Kashyos?

(b)How do we reconcile the concession to wade through water up to one's neck on Yom Kippur - with the element of danger which ought to create a prohibition - as is borne out by the Pasuk in Yechezkel, regarding the river which flowed through the Beis Hamikdash from the Kodesh ha'Kodashim, and which later become a turbulent, impassable river?

(c)May one cross a fast-flowing river which is ...

1. ... ankle-deep?

2. ... knee-deep?

3. ... loin-deep?

(d)Will it be possible ...

1. ... to swim across the stream that will flow from the Kodesh ha'Kodashim, one it becomes impassable on foot?

2. ... to cross it by boat?

3. ... for the Angel of Death to cross it?

11)

(a)Rav Yehudah permitted Rami bar Papa to wade through the river to ask him and his son Rav Shmuel some Kashyos - provided that he did not remove his hand from the hem of his cloak, to remind him not to raise the cloak on to his shoulders, which looks like carrying.

(b)The concession to wade through water up to one's neck on Yom Kippur pertains to a river that is not fast-flowing, and is therefore not dangerous - whereas the Pasuk in Yechezkel, regarding the river which flowed through the Beis Hamikdash from the Kodesh ha'Kodashim, and which later become a turbulent, impassable river, is confined to a very fast-flowing one, as is evident from the context.

(c)One may cross a fast-flowing river which is ...

1. ... ankle-deep.

2. ... knee-deep.

3. ... loin-deep.

(d)It will not be possible ...

1. ... to swim across the stream that will flow from the Kodesh ha'Kodashim, one it becomes impassable on foot.

2. ... to cross it by boat.

3. ... for the Angel of Death to cross it.

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