REVIEW QUESTIONS - YEVAMOS 50

REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI

Prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim
daf@dafyomi.co.il http://www.dafyomi.co.il

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YEVAMOS 50 - Dedicated in loving memory of David J. Mizrahi (David ben Adele), whose warmth and kindness made him loved by all. Your memory is with us always. By his brother-in-law, Michael M. Missry.

1)
(a) Raban Gamliel holds 'Ein Get Achar Get, v'Lo Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar, v'Lo Be'ilah Achar Be'ilah v'Lo Chalitzah Achar Chalitzah'. What does 'Ein Get Achar Get' mean?
(b) What is his reason for saying ...
1. ... 'Ein Get Achar Get, v'Lo Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar'?
2. ... 'v'Lo Be'ilah Achar Be'ilah'?
3. ... 'v'Lo Chalitzah Achar Chalitzah'?
(c) The Chachamim say 'Yesh Get Achar Get, v'Yesh Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar'. Why is that?
(d) What do the Rabanan say about Be'ilah and Chalitzah?
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2)
(a) What is the significance of the Tana's question 'Keitzad' (which does not have its usual connotation)?
(b) What cannot be removed by ...
1. ... Chalitzah?
2. ... a Get?
(c) What will be the Din if the Yavam ...
1. ... made Ma'amar with the Yevamah and gave her a Get?
2. ... made Ma'amar and Chalitzah?
3. ... made Ma'amar and Be'ilah?
(d) And what if he gave her a Get and made Ma'amar ...
1. ... according to the Rabanan?
2. ... according to Raban Gamliel?
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3)
(a) If he gave her a Get and performed Be'ilah, he still requires a Get and Chalitzah. Why is a Get not sufficient, seeing as, once he performs Be'ilah, the Yevamah becomes his wife?
(b) Since the author of our Mishnah is Rebbi Akiva (as we shall soon see), why does she still require Chalitzah? Having given a Get, why is the Yevamah not like a Chalutzah, on whom Kidushin does not take effect?
(c) If he gave her a Get and performed Chalitzah, 'Ein Achar Chalitzah Klum'. What does this mean?
(d) Why is that? Why do we not take into account the fact that the Chalitzah was a Chalitzah Pesulah?
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4)
(a) What does the Mishnah say about a Yavam who, after Chalitzah, makes Ma'amar, gives a Get or performs Be'ilah?
(b) Why can this only go according to Rebbi Akiva?
(c) What is the point of inserting the case of Get after Chalitzah (seeing as he is forbidden to marry her relatives anyway)?
(d) And what will be the Din if after Bi'ah, he made Ma'amar, gave a Get (for his Zikah) or performed Chalitzah? Why does the Tana follow this with the words 'Ein Achar Chalitzah Klum'?
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50b----------------------------------------50b

5)
(a) Is there any basic difference between the above (which speaks by one Yavam and one Yevamah) and one Yavam who does the same with two Yevamos?
(b) If the Yavam made Ma'amar with each Yevamah, Raban Gamliel will say 'Ein Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar'. What do the Rabanan hold? Why can he not perform Yibum with either of them?
(c) And what if he made Ma'amar with one of them, and the other ...
1. ... he gave a get? Why can he not perform Yibum with the Ba'alas Ma'amar?
2. ... he performed Be'ilah? Why will a Get not suffice for the Ba'alas Bi'ah?
3. ... he performed Chalitzah?
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6)
(a) If he gave both Yevamos a Get, both require Chalitzah (because the Rabanan hold 'Yesh Get Achar Get'). What if, after the Get, with the other Yavam, he performed ...
1. ... Bi'ah or Ma'amar?
2. ... Chalitzah?
(b) What is the significance of the statement (by one Yavam and two Yevamos) ...
1. ... 'Chalatz v'Chalatz, Ein l'Achar Chalitzah Klum'?
2. ... 'Chalatz , v'Asah Ma'amar, Nasan Get u'Ba'al, Ein l'Achar Chalitzah Klum'?
(c) What is the Din by 'Ba'al u'Ba'al, O Ba'al v'Asah Ma'amar, Nasan Get v'Chalatz'?
(d) What will be the Din in all of the above cases by two Yevamin and one Yevamah?
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7)
(a) Why does the Tana repeat 'Chalatz, v'Asah Ma'amar, v'Nasan Get u'Ba'al, Ein Achar Chalitzah Klum' (by one Yavam and one Yevamah), even though he has already taught us this?
(b) What is the basic distinction between Chalitzah and Yibum in all of these cases?
(c) What does Rebbi Nechemyah say?
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8)
(a) From our Mishnah, it is evident that both a Get and Ma'amar are effective by a Yevamah. Why did Chazal institute ...
1. ... a Get?
2. ... Ma'amar?
(b) And why did they institute that Bi'ah Pesulah should not be final ('Bi'ah Pesulah Yesh Acharehah Klum') in the case of ...
1. ... Bi'ah Achar ha'Get?
2. ... Bi'ah Achar Ma'amar?
(c) So why did they not institute a similar decree with regard to Chalitzah ...
1. ... after a Get on account of Chalitzah after Chalitzah?
2. ... after Ma'amar on account of Chalitzah after Bi'ah?
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