REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RAN

Prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim
daf@dafyomi.co.il    http://www.dafyomi.co.il


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NEDARIM 72
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1)
(a) The Beraisa lists the cases of Nisroknah Reshus l'Av: 'bi'Zeman she'Lo Shama ha'Ba'al, O Shama v'Hafer O Shama v'Shasak'. How do we try to prove from there that divorce is like Hakamah?
(b) How do we counter this from the Seifa 'Aval Im Shama v'Kiyem O Shama v'Shasak u'Mes b'Yom shel Acharav, Ein Yachol Lehafer'?
(c) What do we mean when we say 'I Reisha Davka, Nasiv Seifa Mishum Reisha'? Why did the Tana then omit Gerushin from the Seifa?
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2)
(a) We try to prove that divorce is like Shetikah, from our Mishnah "Nadrah v'Hi Arusash, v'Nisgarshah v'Nis'arsah bo ba'Yom, Afilu l'Me'ah, Avihah u'Ba'alah Mefirin Nedarehah'. What makes us think that the Arus must have heard about the Neder?
(b) What is then the proof from there?
(c) How do we refute it proof? Why does the Tana then say 'bo ba'Yom'?
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3)
(a) 'Nadrah bo ba'Yom, Girshah v'Hichzirah bo ba'Yom, Ein Yachol Lehafer'. How do we try to prove from this Mishnah in 've'Eilu Na'aros' that Gerushin is like Hakamah?
(b) We refute this proof by establishing it by a Nesu'ah, and the reason that he cannot annul the Nedarim is because 'Ein ha'Ba'al Mefer b'Kodmin'. What is the case?
(c) What would be the reason if the Mishnah was speaking when they were married the first time, and only betrothed the second time?
(d) Then why does the Mishnah give the reason as 'de'Ein ha'Ba'al Mefer b'Kodmin'?
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4)
(a) Since the She'eilah remains unresolved, the Ramban rules 'Gerushin k'Hakamah'. Why is that?
(b) The Rashba however, disagrees. How does he extrapolate his ruling from Shmuel, who asked earlier 'Mina Hani Mili, d'Arus Acharon Mefer Nedarim she'Nir'u l'Rishon'?
(c) So why does our Sugya not resolve the She'eilah from Shmuel?
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72b----------------------------------------72b

5)
(a) What does our Mishnah say about fathers and betrothed men who were Talmidei Chachamim. What did they used to declare before an Arusah got married?
(b) Why did they do that?
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6)
(a) What She'eilah did Rami bar Chama ask with regard to the Pasuk "v'Shama Avihah es Nidrah"?
(b) Does the She'eilah also pertain to an Arus and to a husband, or is it confined to a father?
(c) We try to resolve the She'eilah from our Mishnah ('Derech Talmidei-Chachamim ... Kol Nedarim she'Nadart'). How do we know that the Tana is not referring to Nedarim that they know about?
(d) We refute this proof by establishing our Mishnah, not by the final Hafarah, but when the father and the Arus intend to repeat the nullification when they get to hear about it. What is then the point of annulling the Nedarim in advance (seeing as the Hafarah is not effective anyway)?
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7)
(a) We try to bring the same proof from the Seifa of our Mishnah 'v'Chen ha'Ba'al ad she'Lo Tikanes li'Reshuso ... '. According to some texts, we answer like we answered in the case of the father. Other texts read 'l'Chi Shama'na'. What does this mean? Is 'l'Chi Shama'na' a part of the quotation, or does it simply mean that 'when he hears about the Neder' it will become Batel automatically?
(b) Why can we give this answer with regard to the Arus, but not with regard to the father?
(c) What does the Mishnah later say about a man who says 'Kol Nedarim she'Taduri ad she'Avo mi'Makom Peloni' ...
1. ... Harei Hein Kayamin'?
2. ... Harei Hein Mufarin' (according to Rebbi Eliezer)?
(d) What do the Rabanan say?
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8)
(a) We try to prove from Rebbi Eliezer that a husband can annul Nedarim which he has not heard about. What about the Rabanan?
(b) We answer that here too, the Tana speaks when he said 'l'Chi Shama'na'. In that case, what is the point of annulling the Nedarim in advance? Why does he not wait until she declares the Neder and he gets to hear about it?
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9)
(a) What does Rebbi Yoshiyah in a Beraisa learn from the Pasuk "Ishah Yekimenah, v'Ishah Yeferenu"?
(b) On what grounds does Rebbi Yonasan object to that?
(c) We attempt to resolve our She'eilah (whether the husband needs to have heard about the Neder before annulling it or not) from this Beraisa, because, according to Rebbi Yonasan, the agent is able to annul the Nedarim, even though the husband himself did not hear about them. How about Rebbi Yoshiyah?
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10)
(a) How do we refute the above proof?
(b) What must the agent say to the woman when he annuls her Nedarim?
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11)
(a) The Sugya in Nazir establishes the Beraisa of Rebbi Yoshiyah and Rebbi Yonasan like Rebbi Eliezer. Seeing as, according to Rebbi Eliezer, a husband can annul his wife's Nedarim in advance, even before they come into effect, why does he need an agent? Let him annul her Nedarim ...
1. ... before his departure?
2. ... immediately, before he forgets?
(b) How could we circumvent this problem? How could a man annul his wife's Nedarim now without implicating himself?
(c) In that case, why does he not do that? What does he gain by appointing an agent?
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