22b----------------------------------------22b
5)
(a) What She'eilah did Rami bar Chama ask about someone who declared 'Harei Alai k'Besar Zevach Shelamim'? What is ...
1. ... 'be'Ikra' (or 'me'Ikara')?
2. ... 'bi'Tzenana'?
(b) How does Mar Zutra Brei d'Rav Mari resolve Rami bar Chama's She'eilah from the previous Beraisa?
(c) How do we differentiate between the two cases?
(d) What is the final word in the Sugya on this matter?
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6)
(a) Bearing in mind that the Sugya in Nedarim establishes Rami bar Chama's She'eilah after the blood has already been sprinkled and the Shelamim is permitted, perhaps the Beraisa only after Ikra because the friend said 'va'Ani' whilst the Noderes was still a Nezirah, but not in the case of Rami bar Chama, where the Noder declared the Neder at the time when the Shelamim was already permitted?
(b) Others explain the Sugya differently. According to them, Mar Zutra Brei d'Rav Mari proves from Rami bar Chama that the Beraisa might even hold that a husband annuls his wife's Nedarim retroactively (like the previous Sugya concluded). In that case, why does the friend remain Asur after the husband annulled the Nezirus?
(c) There are however, numerous problems with this explanation. What is the first of these problems which emanates from the words of Rami bar Chama himself?
(d) Another problem is the Sugya above, which discussed the ramifications of the She'eilah whether the husband annuls his wife's Nedarim retroactively, or only from now on. What were those ramifications? How does that disprove this interpretation of Rami bar Chama?
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7)
(a) If the friend said 'be'Ikvech', she might mean that she wants to be like her friend ultimately turns out to be (a Nezirah if her friend's husband does not annul her Nezirus, but permitted, if he does). What else might 'be'Ikvah' mean?
(b) What do we attempt to prove from our Mishnah 'ha'Ishah she'Nadrah b'Nazir v'Shama Ba'alah va'Amar 'va'Ani', Eino Yachol Lehafer'?
(c) How can we even attempt to prove anything from there, seeing as the husband said 'va'Ani' and not 'be'Ikvech'?
(d) How do we refute the proof from there? Why would the husband's Hafarah be ineffective, even if we were to say 'be'Ikra ka'Matfis'?
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8)
(a) We learned in our Mishnah that, if a man says to his wife 'Hareini Nazir v'At, v'Amrah Amen, Mefer es Shelah, v'Shelo Kayam'. We have a problem from a Beraisa, which states 'Sheneihem Asurin'. What does the Seifa of the Beraisa say, with regard to where she did not say 'Amen'?
(b) What is the Tana's reason ...
1. ... in the Reisha?
2. ... in the Seifa?
(c) Rav Yehudah amends the Beraisa, adding a (middle) section to read like our Mishnah. There are now three sections in the Beraisa. The Reisha, which rules that if he did not annul her Neder, both are forbidden, does not teach us anything. What is then the Chidush of the Beraisa?
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9)
(a) How does Abaye slightly amend the Reisha of the Beraisa, without adding anything else to it?
(b) According to him, what is the difference between the text of our Mishnah and that of the Beraisa?
(c) What are the ramifications of this distinction?
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Index to Review Questions and Answers for Maseches Nazir
