THE GISI TURKEL MASECHES NAZIR
REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND TOSFOS

Prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim
daf@dafyomi.co.il    http://www.dafyomi.co.il


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NAZIR 21
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NAZIR 21 (5 Nisan) - l'Iluy Nishmas Maras Leah bas ha'Chaver Reb Refael Hanis. Dedicated by her son in law, Reb Yitzchak Kruskal of London, and family.

1)
(a) How do we attempt to support Resh Lakish ('Toch Kedei k'Dibur Dami') from our Mishnah, which lists twice 'va'Ani'? What should it have said according to Rebbi Yehudah Nesi'a?
(b) Why is this not also a Kashya on Resh Lakish, according to whom the Tana ought to have listed it three times?
(c) How do we refute the disproof from our Mishnah against Rebbi Yehudah Nesi'a?
(d) Then why does the Tana mention even the second 'va'Ani'?
click for answer

2)
(a) We have assumed until now that all subsequent Nodrim (who say 'va'Ani') actually connect with the initial Noder. What is the alternative explanation?
(b) What are the ramifications of this She'eilah?
(c) Why is there no proof from our Mishnah, which only lists 'va'Ani' twice, that each one is connected to the original Noder?
(d) If the Tana holds that each Noder is connected to the previous one, why does he say ...
1. ... 'Hutar ha'Rishon, Hutru Kulan', implying that if the second one were to annul his Neder, the Neder of those following him would remain intact?
2. ... 'Hutar ha'Acharon, ha'Acharon Mutar', implying that only the third one is permitted, but not those that follow him?
click for answer

3)
(a) If, on the other hand, the Tana holds that all the Nodrim are connected to the first one, why does he say with regard to the last one 'Hutar ha'Acharon ... ', implying that if the middle one would annul his Neder, all the subsequent ones would be permitted too (a proof for the second side of the She'eilah)?
(b) Why does the Tana refer to the middle one as 'Acharon'?
(c) We finally cite a Beraisa, which learns specifically like the first side of the She'eilah. What does the Beraisa say that is not contained in our Mishnah?
click for answer


21b----------------------------------------21b

4)
(a) On what grounds does the Beraisa rules that if someone says 'Yadi Nezirah, v'Ragli Nezirah' he is not a Nazir, whereas if he says 'Roshi Nezirah, Keveidi Nezirah'he is?
(b) How does Rav Yehudah reconcile this with our Mishnah, which declares someone who says 'Pi k'Fiv v'Sa'ari k'Sa'aro' a Nazir? How does he establish our Mishnah?
click for answer

5)
(a)They asked whether a husband's Hafarah of his wife's Nedarim works retroactively (like that of a Chacham), or whether he only annuls it from now on. What are the ramifications of this She'eilah with regard to her friend who said 'va'Ani'?
(b) What other ramifications might we have stated?
(c) Seeing as a Chacham uproots the Neder retroactively, why might a husband not be able to do so?
click for answer

6)
(a) We initially try to prove that a husband annuls his wife's Nedarim retroactively from the fact that, in our Mishnah, when a woman declared a Neder Nezirus and, after saying 'va'Ani', her husband annulled her Neder, his annulment is void (because he is not empowered to annul his own Nedarim, as we explained earlier). Why in fact, will his Hafarah not be effective even if it only works from now on?
(b) Under what condition will it nevertheless be effective?
click for answer

7)
(a) The Beraisa discusses the Korbanos of a Nezirah whose husband has annulled her Nezirus. What will happen to the animal which she designated as her Chatas, after her husband annulled her Nezirus, assuming that the animal was ...
1. ... his? Why is that?
2. ... hers?
(b) Does, in the former case, should the animal require redemption at all?
click for answer

8)
(a) How do we try to resolve our She'eilah from the Beraisa?
(b) We refute this proof however, on the basis of Rebbi Elazar ha'Kapar. What does he say? How will that explain the Beraisa?
(c) Why is her Chatas not sent in a field to graze, so that, when it obtains a blemish, the owner will be able to redeem it?
click for answer

9)
(a) How do we attempt to resolve our She'eilah from the next Mishnah, which sentences a Nezirah who drank wine or made herself Tamei Mes to Malkus?
(b) On what grounds do we not at first want to establish the Beraisa where her husband had not yet annulled her Nezirus?
click for answer

10)
(a) Then how do we nevertheless establish the Beraisa? Why is it now all right to do so?
(b) Why does the Tana find it necessary to teach us that she does not receive Malkus in this case? Is that too, not obvious?
(c) Why does the Tana not issue the same ruling, but even if she drank wine or made herself Tamei Mes before her husband annulled her Nezirus (seeing as we are currently holding that her husband annuls her Nedarim retroactively)?
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