Introduction to Meilah

Please note that unless otherwise indicated, we follow the explanation of Rashi. Consequently, our notes and comments do not necessarily have any bearing on the practical Halachah.

(a) What does our Mishnah say about Me'ilah, in a case of Kodshei Kodshim that were Shechted on the south side of the Azarah (instead of on the north), and whose blood was then received on the north?

(b) Having taught us that the above case is subject to Me'ilah, why does the Tana find it necessary to add the reverse case, where one performed the Shechitah on the north, and the Kabalas ha'Dam on the south?

(c) And what does the Tana say in a case where one Shechted Kodshim by day and performed Zerikas ha'Dam by night or vice-versa, or if one Shechted them with the intention of eating them in the wrong time or in the wrong location?

(d) Having taught us the first ruling (Kodshim by day and Zerikas ha'Dam by night) what is the significance of the second one ('vice-versa')?

(a) What do all the above cases have in common? How does Rebbi Yehoshua categorize Kodshim that are not subject to Me'ilah?

(b) What three examples of 'Hayah Lah Heter le'Kohanim' does Rebbi Yehoshua present?

(c) How does Rebbi Yehoshua derive this distinction from the Pasuk in Vayikra (in connection with the Din of Me'ilah) "mi'Kodshei Hashem"?

(d) Which P'sul does the Tana add to those mentioned in the Reisha (that did not yet have a Sha'as ha'Kosher)?

(a) What problem do we have with the opening ruling ('Kodshei Kodshim she'Shachtan ba'Tzafon ... ') in the Mishnah?

(b) We answer with a statement of Ula Amar Rebbi Yochanan.
What did he say about Kodshim that died?

(c) Why then, are Kodshim that are Shechted in the south subject to Me'ilah?
What advantage do Kodshei Kodshim that have been Shechted in the south have over Kodshim that died?

(a) We already explained in our Mishnah why the Tana sees fit to add the second case of 'Shachtan ba'Tzafon ve'Kibel Daman ba'Darom'.
Why does he then need to add 'Shachat ba'Yom ve'Zarak ba'Laylah'?

(b) And why does he omit the case of 'Shachat ba'Laylah ve'Zarak ba'Yom'?

(c) Bearing in mind Ula's earlier ruling 'Kodshim she'Meisu, Yatz'u mi'Yedei Me'ilah', on what grounds is one Mo'el in the case of ...

1. ... Shachtan ba'Yom ve'Zarak Daman ba'Laylah'?
2. ... Shachtan Chutz li'Zemano ve'Chutz li'Mekomo'?

5)

(a) We ask whether the Pesulim in our Mishnah may remain on the Mizbe'ach, if they were inadvertently placed there. Rabah says 'Im Alu, Yerdu'.
What does Rav Yosef say?

(b) Their Machlokes does not go according to Rebbi Yehudah.
Based on the Pasuk in Vayikra "Zos ... Hi ha'Olah"(incorporating three Mi'utin), what does Rebbi Yehudah say about Nishpach Damah, Lanah and Yatz'ah?

(c) So they argue according to Rebbi Shimon. What does Rebbi Shimon Darshen from "Zos Toras ha'Olah" regarding 'Nitnin le'Matah she'Nasnan Lema'alah', or vice-versa, and similar Pesulin?

(d) Rav Yosef holds like Rebbi Shimon. What does Rabah say? Why would even Rebbi Shimon agree in the cases under discussion that 'Im Alu, Yerdu'?

(a) What problem do we have with Rabah from our Mishnah 'Kodshei Kodshim she'Shachtan be'Darom, Mo'alin Bahen'?

(b) What do we answer? How will Rabah interpret 'Mo'alin Bahen'?

(c) What is the difference between Me'ilah d'Oraysa and Me'ilah de'Rabbanan?

(d) What do we prove from the statement of Ula Amar Rebbi Yochanan 'Kodshim she'Meisu, Yatz'u mi'Yedei Me'ilah D'var Torah'?

(a) Why does Ula Amar Rebbi Yochanan then need to issue his ruling by Kodshim she'Meisu? Why is not obvious from our Mishnah according to Rabah, as we just explained?

(b) We query Rebbi Yochanan however, from a Mishnah in the fourth Perek, which discusses someone who derives benefit from a Chatas.
What does the Tana say there about someone who benefits from a Chatas with a Mum ...

1. ... whilst it is still alive?
2. ... after it is dead?

(c) What is the difference between a Chatas Ba'al-Mum and a K'li belonging to Hekdesh, which is subject to Me'ilah even if it does not depreciate?

(d) And we explain that even though the Mishnah already teaches us that Me'ilah mi'de'Rabbanan applies to a dead Chatas, we nevertheless need Rebbi Yochanan's ruling with regard to other Korbanos.
Why might we have thought that Chatas is different in this regard, and that by other Kodshim the Chachamim did not decree Me'ilah (see Rabeinu Gershom)?

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