(a) We attempt to reconcile Rav Chisda (who assessed a stone of navy-blue marble) with Shmuel ('Chaishinan Shema Shaveh Perutah be'Madai') by referring to the Gemara's previous statement with regard to Rav. How did the Gemara just reconcile Rav, who assessed a bundle of cloths, with Shmuel?

(b) We refute this answer by virtue of the fact that the Mekadesh's brother subsequently betrothed her with a Perutah and Rav Chisda wanted to know whether his Kidushin was valid or not. What would then be the problem if we established Rav Chisda's case by Vadai Kidushin?

TOSFOS DH HA IKA SAHADI BE ORIS!

(a) What do we comment on the texts that have instead of 'Uris' - 'Idis'?

(b) What does 'Uris mean, based on a Gemara in Bava Basra, where it refers to 'Uryah'?

(c) What exactly, does 'Uryah' mean?

(d) We reject Rashi's explanation of the word, which he translates as 'the east'. Why is that?

(a) Bearing in mind that the Amora'im who wrote the Bavli lived in Bavel, what does 'Ha Ika Sahadi be Uris' mean?

(b) How do we know that the Bavli'im considered Eretz Yisrael as being in the west?

(a) Why did Rebbi Chanina then say 'Eidehah be'Tzad Istan ve'Te'asar?' (and not 'be'Uris')?

(b) What did he then mean? What was he then referring to?

(c) What does the Gemara in Megilah mean when it says 'Ba'i Sh'ma'atesa Tzilusa ke'Yoma de'Ist'na'?

(d) And how does Targum Yonasan translate the Pasuk in Iyov "mi'Tziyon Zahav Ya'asah"?

(a) Why can the Rabanan not mean that we ...

1. ... suspect that maybe there are witnesses in the west?

2. ... know for sure that there are witnesses who know that at that moment, the object was worth a Perutah?

(b) How does the Ri therefore explain it?

(a) Some ascribe the leniency by Shevuyah to the fact that a woman tends to protect herself by making herself look ugly. What reason do others give to explain why we are more lenient by Shevuyah than we are by 'Mekadesh be'Kuchla'?

(b) How do others explain the difference, based on the respective punishments due to a Shevuyah and an Eishes Ish?

(c) On what grounds do we reject this explanation? How is it possible for Misah to apply even in the case of a Shevuyah?

(a) How does Rashi cite the case?

(b) On what grounds do we reject Rashi's explanation?

(c) We therefore refer to a Gemara in Gitin. What did the husbands initially used to do to negate a Get?

(d) What did Raban Gamliel say about that?

(a) There are two opinions there as to whether, if one contravened Raban Gamliel's Takanah, one's negation is valid or not. According to which opinion is our Gemara easily understood?

(b) How will we explain Rav's strong reaction even according to the opinion that considers the negation invalid?

(a) What do Chasanim tend to do nowadays, based on this ruling?

(b) Why might this be permitted even according to the opinion that forbade it earlier?

(a) Why, according to Rabeinu Tam, is being Mekadesh a woman with Bi'ah considered P'ritzus, even when it is preceded by a Shiduch?

(b) We query Rabeinu Tam however, from a Gemara in Yevamos. What does the Gemara say there about a Yavam who performs Bi'ah with his Yevamah, without first being Mekadesh her?

(c) Why can we not explain that Gemara like Rabeinu Tam?

(d) What reason does the Ri therefore give to explain Rav?

(a) What do we not insert in our text?