prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Yerushalayim
Rosh Kollel: Rabbi Mordecai Kornfeld
(a) Rebbi Eliezer permits a person to place two Eruvin, one to the east and one to the west, the one to be effective on Yom-Tov, the other, on the Shabbos that follows it (or vice-versa). What is his reason?
(b) What do the Rabbanan hold?
(c) Is there any difference between this case and one in which he places only one Eruv and makes a condition to use it on one day, and to retain his regular home as his residence on the other?
(a) What does Rebbi Eliezer mean when he asks the Rabbanan 'But you agree with me that they have two different levels of sanctity'?
(b) The Rabbanan mentioned two cases in the Mishnah: that one may only make an Eruv in one direction, and that one only make an Eruv for the two days. Are these not one and the same thing?
(c) How does Rebbi Eliezer deal with this Kashya?
(d) Rebbi Eliezer proved that Shabbos and Yom-Tov have two different levels of sanctity from the very words of the Rabbanan (see 2a above). Which other proof does he bring from the case of Me'arev be'Raglav?
(a) How do we reconcile the Rabbanan with Rebbi Eliezer's proofs?
(b) What does 've'Hacha Lechumra ve'Hacha Lechumra' mean?
(c) According to Rebbi Eliezer, why is one not permitted to place an Eruv on Yom-Tov for Shabbos?
(a) According to Rebbi (the Tana Kama of the Beraisa), when Shabbos and Yom-Tov follow each other, someone who made an Eruv by waiting on the spot during the first Bein Hashemashos until Shabbos entered , must nevertheless repeat this on the second day. What does he hold with regard to someone whose Eruv was eaten on the first day? What is his reason for both statements?
(b) Rebbi Yehudah holds 'Harei Zeh Chamar Gamal. Why is this?
(c) Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and Rebbi Yishmael the son of Rebbi Yochanan ben Berokah are quoted in the Beraisa as holding that the two days have one sanctity. What do they really hold?
(a) Like which of the above Tana'im do we rule, and who is the initial author of this opinion?
(b) When Rav issued his ruling, why did he not also quote Rebbi by name?
(c) So how did Rav know that Raban Shimon ben Gamliel and Rebbi Yishmael the son of Rebbi Yishmael ben Berokah, like Rebbi, were not just quoting Rebbi Eliezer, without actually agreeing with him?
(d) Two other Tana'im also follow the opinion of Rebbi Eliezer in this regard. One of them may have been Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah Stimta'ah. Why does the Gemara refer to him by that name?
(a) How did Rabah explain Rav, who ruled above like Rebbi Eliezer, yet he also ruled that an egg laid on Shabbos is forbidden on Yom-Tov (or vice-versa)?
(b) Then how does he explain the Mishnah which requires the Eruv (which was made on foot) to be re-placed on Yom-Tov (which is Erev Shabbos), if he wishes to use it again for Shabbos. Why is this not also a case of preparing on Yom-Tov for Shabbos?
(c) Then why is it that in the Mishnah that we quoted above (36a), when he declares the jar of Ma'aser wine to be Terumas Ma'aser when Shabbos enters, the wine is not valid for an Eruv for that same day?
(d) And why is it that if someone places two Eruvin for the two consecutive days, one in the east and one in the west, Rebbi Eliezer permits each Eruv on its respective day? Surely here too, the Eruv in the west is not accessible to him on the first day (when he places it) - from the east, from his new residence in the east?
(a) Why did the Gemara initially think that, since Rebbi Eliezer forbids preparing one's Eruv on Yom-Tov for Shabbos and vice-versa, that it should also then be forbidden to prepare his Eruv on foot (without using food) on the first day for the second?
(b) Why in fact, does Rebbi Eliezer permit this?
(c) Why does the Gemara at first believe that Rebbi Eliezer holds like Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri (Cheftzei Hefker)? What does Rebbi Yochanan ben Nuri say?
(d) How then, do we establish Rebbi Eliezer even like the Rabbanan?
(a) The Beraisa forbids someone to walk around his field on Shabbos to see what needs repairing. Why?
(b) What else does the same Beraisa forbid for the same reason?
(c) Then how could Rabah explain the above-mentioned Beraisa to permit going to the Techum to make an Eruv just because he does not need to say anything. Why is that any better than the previous two cases which are forbidden?