Why does the Torah write "B'nei Naftali", and not 'li'Venei Naftali', like it does by all the other tribes?
Moshav Zekenim and Ba'al ha'Turim: Because the tribe of Naftali had more women than men. 1 (And it writes "B'nei", like one who selects the males from the females - Rabeinu Bachye in Pasuk 20). 2
Oznayim la'Torah #1 (citing some opinions citing the Arizal): Because, when they counted the families, they placed all the names in a box and each Nasi picked the ballots with the name of the members of his tribe until it came to Naftali - the last Nasi, who found all the remaining ballots with the names of the families of his tribe without his having to pick them out. 3
Oznayim la'Torah #2: Since the Torah lists Naftali last, 4 in spite of the fact that he was neither the youngest of Ya'akov's sons nor was his tribe the smallest, 5 it was necessary to appease them, which the Torah does by using the same Lashon by them - "B'nei" as it used by the first tribe, Reuven.
Moshav Zekenim and Ba'al ha'Turim: And that explains why, in Parshas Pinchas, the Torah writes "B'nei" by all the tribes, since at that stage, the men had died, and every tribe comprised more women than men. See Ba'al ha'Turim.
See Oznayim la'Torah who queries this answer seeing as the Torah writes "B'nei" by Reuven as well? Refer to 1:42:1:3.
See Oznayim la'Torah.
See Oznayim la'Torah.
