1)

What is the word "ve?Zos Toras ha?Minchah" coming to preclude?

1.

Sifra: It precludes the Bamos, which are not subject to Menachos.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the word "Toras" by the Minchah?

1.

Rashi and Ramban: To teach us that all the Menachos, including those of a Kohen, require oil and frankincense even though they are completely burned and do not require a Kemitzah to be taken from them 1 .

2.

Ba'al ha'Turim: Refer to 6:2:4:2*.

3.

Menachos, 72b: To require the Shiyarim of all Menachos to be eaten by the Kohanim. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 47.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 46.

3)

What does "Hakrev Osah ... Lifnei Hashem" entail?

1.

Rashi and Ramban (citing Zevachim, 63b): It entails the Kohen taking the Minchah to the south-western corner 1 of the Mizbe'ach. 2


1

Refer to 6:7:3:1.

2

Which is the equivalent of the Holachah by a Korban Beheimah.

4)

What is the "Hakreiv Osah" coming to preclude?

1.

Sifra: a. It precludes a Pasul Minchah from Hagashah, and b. it implies that the Kohen is obligated to bring the entire Minchah to the Mizbe'ach, anc not just part of it.

5)

Why does the Torah write B'nei Aharon" and not 'ha'Kohen' or 'ha'Kohanim'?

1.

Kidushin, 36a: To preclude women from Hagashah. 1


1

See Oznayim la'Torah as to why the Torah teaches it specifically by the Hagashah.

6)

What are the connotations of "Lifnei Hashem el-P'nei ha'Mizbe'ach"?

1.

Rashi and Ramban (citing Zevachim, 63b): "Lifnei Hashem" means on the west side of the Mizbe'ach, which is the closest to the Heichal; whereas "P'nei ha'Mizbe'ach" implies the south side, where the ramp is situated. Consequently, the Kohen must take the Minchah to the south-western corner 1 where he performs the Kemitzah.

2.

Zevachim, 63b: Bearing in mind the principle 'Wherever the Torah writes "ha'Mizbe'ach" it is crucual to the Avodah, it teaches us that the ramp is crucial to the Avodah. 2


1

See also Torah Temimah, note 50.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 51.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

7)

Rashi writes that "Lifnei Hashem" means the west, and "P'nei ha'Mizbe'ach", the south, so Hagashah is to the south-western corner. Why do we not rather explain that the entire Azarah is "Lifnei Hashem" - like it is for Semichah, and the entire north fulfills "Tzafonah Lifnei Hashem" for Shechitas Kodshei Kodoshim?

1.

Korban Aharon (on Sifra Parshah 3, 7): Because it is only when we may have thought that something may be brought outside that "Lifnei Hashem" teaches us in the Azarah, whereas if we already know that it is in the Azarah, it implies in the west.

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