1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "asher Yevukar la'Hashem"?

1.

Temurah, 25a: To teach us that, as opposed to all other Kodshim, the prohibition against being Makdish it as another Korban 1 is confined to after it is born. 2


1

Refer to 27:26:1:1.

2

See Torah Tm imah, note 145.

2)

What is "Ach" coming to preclude?

1.

Temurah, 25a: It precludes other Kodshim from the D'rashah in 27:26:0.1:1 - and the prohibition against declaring a Kodshim animal as a different form of Hekdesh applies even whilst it is a fetus in its mother's womb. 1


1

See Torah Tm imah, note 146.

3)

What does the Torah mean when it writes about a firstborn animal "Lo Yakdish"?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: It means that one is not permitted to take a B'chor and declare it Hekdesh (as an Olah or a Shelamim), since it is not his 1 (to declare Hekdesh).

2.

Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: The Torah means (not that one may not declare it a B'chor, but) that one need not do so. 2


1

Rashbam: Since it is already Hekdesh.

2

Ramban: Since, if it is a calf or a Seh, it automatically belongs to Hashem. Refer to 27:26:2:1.

4)

How will we reconcile the current Pasuk ("Lo Yakdish") with the Pasuk in Devarim, 15:19, which states "Kol ha'Bechor ... Takdish la'Hashem Elokecha"!

1.

Rashi #1 (in Re'ei Devarim, 15:19): Although a B'chor is automatically Kadosh, it is nevertheless a Mitzvah for the owner to declare it Hekdesh 1 .

2.

Rashi #2 (Devarim 15:19): Although one cannot sanctify the actual B'chor as another Korban, 2 one can however, declare Hekdesh his Tovas Hana'ah, 3 and he must give that amount to Hekdesh. 4

3.

Ramban: What the Pasuk in Devarim means is that one should treat it as Hekdesh, not to work with it or to shear it, and to eat it in Yerushalayim.


1

This can perhaps be compared to the Mitzvah to add fire to the Mizbe'ach, even though fire comes down from Heaven.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 149

3

Rashi (Bechoros 53b): This is the amount that another Yisrael would pay him on condition that he gives it to [a Kohen that the latter chooses, e.g] his grandson.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 150

5)

?Ach B?chor ? bi?Veheimah, Lo Yakdish Ish oso ? la?Hashem hu?. Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "bi'Veheimah" and "Lo Yakdish Ish oso"?

1.

Temurah, 25a: Because, had it not inserted " Ish oso" the Pasuk would imply that a firstborn is not eligible to declare Hekdesh, and had it omitted "bi'Veheimah", it would have implied that he cannot be Makdish a B'chor but others can. Therefore the Torah inserts "bi'Veheimah" to teach us the "B'chor is referring to B'chor Beheomah and not B'chor Adam.

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