hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah write "Vehisnachaltem" and not "Vehinchaltem"?

1.

Rashi: Because what the Pasuk is saying is "Vehisnachaltem osam li'Veneichem ... " - 'Take possession of your slaves on behalf of your children ... '.

2)

What are the ramifications of "Le'olam bahem Ta'avodu"?

1.

Torah Temimah (citing Gitin, 38b): It implies a. an obligation to make a slave work; b. that whoever sets a slave free transgresses an Asei.

3)

And why foes the Torah insert the words "Ish be'Achiv"?

1.

Rashi: This teaches us that the Isur of subjugating an Eved Ivri extends to a leader subjugating the people under his control, and a king, his subjects.

Chumash: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & Donations Readers' Feedback Mailing Lists Talmud Archives Ask the Kollel Dafyomi Weblinks Dafyomi Calendar Other Yomi calendars