What is the literal translation of "Lo Sirdeh bo be'Farech"?
'Do not subjugate him with back-breaking work?
And having already said "Lo Sa'avod bo Avodas Aved" (in Pasuk 39), why does it repeat does the Torah find it necessary to add it here?
Rashi: The current Pasuk refers to making him perform unnecessary tasks in order to torment him. 1
Why does the Pasuk add the phrase "Veyareisa me'Elokecha"?
Rashi: Because once again, nobody knows what is on his mind, whether the word is needed or not, other than Hashem.