1)

Why does the Torah punctuate the word "la'Elohim" with a 'Kamatz'?

1.

Rashi, Rashbam, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: Because it is referring to the gods that are mentioned elsewhere. 1

2.

Ramban #1: Because it is a prohibition against worshipping angels, 2 which are often called by that name. 3

3.

Ramban #2 (according to Kabalah) and Targum Onkelos: It is a prohibition against bringing Korbanos in the Name of Elokim, only in the Name of Hashem. 4

4.

Seforno: Because it is referring to all the deities, to whom one may not bow collectively - even if one includes Hashem as well.


1

In Sh'mos 20:3, whereas "l'Elokim" would refer to Hashem (Rashbam). And had the Torah written only 'Zove'ach Yochoram' we would have interpreted the Pasuk with reference to Shechting Kodshim outside the Azarah (Sanhedrin, 60b).

2

Even though one does so in their capacity as servants of Hashem, in order to find satisfaction in with their Master.

3

See for example, Devarim 10:17 and Tehilim, 86:8 (Ramban).

4

See Ramban Vayikra, 1:9.

2)

What are the connotations of "Yochoram"?

1.

Rashi, Ramban #1, Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means that he is Chayav Misah (by the sword - Targum Yonasan). 1

2.

Ramban #2 and Seforno: It means that both the worshipper as well as whatever is worshipped is deemed a Cherem - a hint that the latter is Asur be'Hana'ah.

3.

Targum Yonasan: It means that he is Chayav Hereg (death by the sword) and his property is destroyed.


1

Rashi in Sanhedrin: As in Bechukosai Vayikra, 27:29. Ramban and Seforno: The Torah uses the word "Yochoram" because it writes in Eikev, 26:27 (in connection with someone who worships Avodah-Zarah) "Vehayisa Cherem Kamohu".

3)

Why did the Torah specify Zevichah (Shechitah)?

1.

Rashi: Bearing in mind the Pasuk in Devarim 17:5, which states that one is Chayav Misah for idolatry, but does not teach which Avodos, the Torah here is teaching us that it applies exclusively to Avodos like Zevichah that are performed in the Beis-ha'Mikdash (and which are subject to Misah - Sanhedrin, 60b), such as - burning incense and pouring wine (and prostrating oneself - Rashi in Re'ei Devarim, 12:30). 1


1

Rashi: But not to sweeping or settling the dust before idolatry, or hugging or kissing it. These are not performed before Hashem, and are only subject to a La'av (unless they are normally worshipped in this manner (in which case he is Chayav Misah - Riva).

4)

Why is this written shortly after witchcraft?

1.

Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 20): Because it is like witchcraft, since witches generaally offer incense to demons and others gods. 1


1

See Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 17) who explains why bestiality is written in between. Refer to 22:18:151:1.

5)

What are the implications of "Bilti la'Hashem Levado"?

1.

Seforno and Hadar Zekeinim (in Pasuk 20): It implies a prohibition against worshipping Hashem together with any other deity. 1

2.

Avodah Zarah, 51a: It implies that one is only Chayav if one Shechts an animal to Avodah Zarah that would have been Kasher had it been brought to Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, to preclude someone who Shechts a blemished animal.

3.

Rashi (in Devarim, 12:30): It confines the Chiyuv Misah for Avodah Zarah to the four major Avodos which one performs on behalf of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu - Shechitah, burn ing on the Mizbe'ach, puring the libation offereing and prostrating oneself. 2


1

Hadar Zekeinim (Ibid.): Like the Kutim did, Sanhedrin, 63a (based on this Pasuk): Anyone who combines the Name of Hashem with anyrhing else will be uprooted from the world. See als Trah Temimah, note 186.

2

Rashi (Ibid.): Even where it is not the way that that particular Avodah-Zarah is generally worshipped.

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