Why does the Torah begin with a 'Beis' and not with an 'Alef'?
Yerushalmi Chagigah, 2:1: Because ?Alef? stands for Arur? (Kelalah), and ?Beis B?rachah. Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu did not create the world with an ?Alef?, so that people should not ask how the world, that was created with a curse 1 can survive, but with a ?Beis? in the hope that it will survive.
Oznayim la'Torah: This is precisely what the 'Alef? asked Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, who answered that when Hashem would give the Torah on Sinai, it would begin with an 'Alef'. This proves that, not only are the Creation and Matan Torah the two greatest events that ever took place, but that Matan Torah is the greater of the two. In fact, the world was created for Torah, and without Torah, the world would not exist. 2
See Torah Temimah, note 4, who elaborates.
Oznayim la'Torah: As the Navi wrote in Yirmiyah, 33:26 "Im Lo Berisi Yomam va'Laylah, Chukos Shamayim va'Aretz Lo Samti".
Why is the 'Beis' of "Bereishis" large?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the twenty-two letters argued as to which letter should begin the creation, and the 'Beis' won. That in itself, is greatness.
"bi'Devar Hashem Shamayim Na'asu". In how many commands did Hashem create the world?
Avos, 5:1: Hashem created the world in ten commands (ba'Asarah Ma'amaros). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 2, who lists them.
How can we say that Hashem created the world in ten commands ('Ma'amarim'), when "Vayomer Hashem" appers only nine times in the first Parshah of Bereishis?
Rosh Hashanah, 32a): Because the word "Bereishis", is also considered a Ma'amar. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 3, who elaborates.
Why did the seventy-two elders, who translated the Torah into Greek for King P'tolomy, change the opening words to "Elokim Bara Bereishis"?
Torah Temimah: So that the he should not explain it to mean that Elokim created a god called 'Bereishis'.
The previous answer implies that, ideally, it would have been pReferable to begin the Torah with "Elokim Bara Bereishis. Why is that?
Torah Temimah: Because it would hve been appropriate to begin the Torah with Hashem's Name.
Why does the Torah not begin with "ha'Chodesh ha'Zeh Lachem" (Shemos 12:2) - which deals with Kidush ha'Chodesh, the first Mitzvah given to Klal Yisrael?
Rashi: It is coming to answer to the nations of the world, who accuse us of having stolen Eretz Yisrael from the seven nations of Kena'an. Therefore, the Torah counters their claim by pointing out that since Hashem created the world, 1 it belongs to Him, in which case, He gave it to whom He wanted, and He was perfectly entitled to take it away from them and give it to whoever He pleased. 2
Peninim mi'Shulchan ha'Gra: All details of everyone's life and every species of plant and animal are in the Torah. All that is written about the Avos, Moshe and Yisrael applies in every generation. The Klal (condensed form) of this is in Parshas Bereishis until Noach; in turn, the Klal of this is in the first Parshah until "Bara Elokim La'asos," and the Klal of this is the first verse. The seven words correspond to 7000 years [of the world]. 3 One who fully understands the first six days, knows what will happen at every moment. 4
Was it not vital to teach us about the creation, in order to convey the lesson that Hashem created the world - the basis of Emunah, to counter the heretics who deny this? The Ramban answers that the Creation, as well as the majority of stories recorded in Sefer Bereishis, are too profound for us to fully understand, so the Torah could just as well have omitted the former, and relied on the Pasuk in the Aseres ha'Dibros 'because in six days Hashem made the Heaven and the earth...' (Shemos 20:11) to negate the deniers of Divine creation. And as for their deeper meaning and the latter, they could have been handed down to the Chachamim via the Oral Torah, from generation to generation.
The Ramban elaborates. He explains (a) how Hashem appointed Adam in charge of the entire world, and placed him in Gan Eden, and how, when he sinned, He expelled him from there; (b) how the Generation of the Flood sinned and were destroyed, and Noach and his sons alone survived, and (c) how the Generation of the Tower sinned and were scattered across the world. It therefore follows, he says, that when a nation sins, it is exiled from its land and another nation replaces it. How much more so when the sinning nation is none other than the cursed Kena'an, the land is G-d's chosen land and the nation that replaces them His chosen nation!
Someone asked about where the Mitzvah of Pidyon ha'Ben is hinted at in Parshas Bereishis. The Vilna Gaon answered, "Ben Rishon Achar Sheloshim Yom Tipadeh," whose initial letters spell 'Bereishis.'
E.g. the dust from which Adam was created was gathered in the first daylight hour of day six, which corresponds to the year 5500. The Vilna Gaon predicted that great advances in technology would occur then (the industrial revolution) (said in the name of the Vilna Gaon).
Bearing in mind that Hashem only told the nations of the world certain Mitzvos - to put them off, how would they find out about the opening words of the Torah?
Refer to Devarim, 27:2:2:1
Why did Hashem find it necessary to give Eretz Yisrael to Cana?an before giving it to Yisrael? Why did He not give us a portion of land without first giving it to another nation?
Oznayim la?Torah: Based on the Pasuk in Tehilim, 105:45 ?Vayiten lahem Artzos Goyim ? Ba?avur Yishm?ru Chukav?, Hashem gave us Eretz Yisrael on condition that we keep the Torah. That is why he gave it first to the Cana?anim, who were ultimately expelled because of their evil deeds - as a warning to what will happen if we fail to fulfil the condition,
Seeing as the Torah is not, in fact, presenting the order of the creation, why does it insert the word "Bereishis"?
Rashi: It comes to teach us that the world was created for the sake of two things that the Torah calls 'Reishis' 1 - Torah and Yisrael 2 (the connection is obvious).
Seforno: "Bereishis" Refers to the first split-second of the creation, which was not subject to time. From then on, Hashem formed and shaped, but did not create (compare with Ramban; Refer to 1:6:1:2).
Da'as Zekenim: The Torah was also created for the sake of Shabbos and B?ris (Milah), both of which are contained in the word 3 'Bereishis' 4 (as is 'Eish' (fire), to which Torah is compared).
Bereishis Rabah (1): "Reishis Darko" (Mishlei 8:22) Refers to Torah. Hashem looked into the Torah and created the world. 5
Oznayim la'Torah: In fact, the 'Beis' in Bereishis is short for 'Bishevil' - 'for the sake of.
Ramban: Why does the Midrash to which Rashi refers, fail to include in the above list Many other things that the Torah also calls 'Reishis' - such as Chalah, Ma'asros (and Terumah), Bikurim, as well as Moshe Rabeinu (in whose merit the Torah was also created, as other Midrashim inform us)? See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Bereishis' #3, who explains the connection between all of these things.
A similar (more esoteric) answer can be gleaned from the Ramban, who although not with the intention of answering this Kashya, points out that the letters of the first three words in the Torah can be rearranged to spell 'be'Rosh Yisbarei Elokim' (In the beginning, Elokim [Midas ha'Din] was created.)
See also Ba'al ha'Turim, for other hints contained in the word "Bereishis" - one of them that the letters spell 'Alef be'Tishri' (the date on which the world was created, according to Rebbi Eliezer (Rosh Hashanah 10b)).
Lev Eliyahu (Bereishis, p. 1): This is not like people think; that because man is prone to steal and murder, the Torah forbids these. Just the contrary! Hashem wanted to bring the Torah down to the land and give reward to Man. Therefore He made man with a Yeitzer ha'Ra to steal, and he will refrain.
Why does the Torah write "Bereishis," which means, 'the beginning of' and not 'ba'Rishonah' (in the beginning)?
Rashi: What the Torah means is that "In the beginning of G-d's creation of Heaven and earth, and the land was still null and void... He said 'Let there be light!'" In other words, the Torah's main thrust here is the creation of light. 1
Ramban: The first Pasuk teaches us that Hashem first 2 created Heaven and earth and all their hosts out of nothing. And it goes on to explain that the earth, incorporating the four basic elements (fire, water earth and wind, as described in the next Pasuk - refer to 1:2:2:4), was initially 'Tohu' (indefinable matter) and 'Bohu' (material form and shape), which refers to the means to develop Tohu (i.e. to form and to make). 3
Rashbam: The Torah is coming to inform us (not the order of creation), but that when Hashem created the world, it was in the state described in the next Pasuk. And mainly, that "the Divine wind was hovering over the water." 4 Why do we need to know this? Because otherwise, we would not understand how, in Pasuk (1:9), the water gathered beneath the Heaven to one place - which it did by means of the wind.
In fact, says the Ramban, the Ibn Ezra, who basically follows this line of thought, maintains that light was the only thing that was created on the first day, by omitting the 'Vav' in the word "veha'Aretz"); though Rashi himself does not learn this way (see Rashi to 2:4). The basic difference between Rashi and the Ramban is whether the first creation was in fact Heaven and earth (Ramban) or whether light, fire and water were created. Hadar Zekenim proves like Rashi, for Shamayim was created from fire and water!
Ramban cites a number of examples from Tanach where "Reishis" means 'the beginning' or 'first' (as is the opinion of Targum Onkelus and Targum Yonasan).
Seforno (to 1:2) explains "Tohu" and "Bohu" in similar fashion to the Ramban.
Rashbam, who gives a number of examples here supporting this theory, applies it often throughout the Torah.
Why does the Torah, in this chapter, describe Hashem as 'Elokim' (which denotes Midas ha'Din) and not Havayah (which denotes Midas Rachamim)?
Rashi: Because initially, He had in mind to create the world (man) with Midas ha'Din. 1 But when He 'saw' that it could not exist on Midas ha'Din alone, He added Midas Rachamim, as the Torah explains later (Bereishis 2:4).
Ramban: 'Elokim' is the acronym of 'Kel Heim' - He is G-d over them. Havayah 2 denotes 'Master of all the powers.'
Seforno: The Name 'Elokim' denotes 'Eternal.' Indeed, Hashem is the only entity that is eternal, although the word is sometimes used to describe beings that are esoteric (angels) and those that act in the image of G-d (the judges)
Gur Aryeh: Why does the Name Elokim represent Midas ha'Din? In Gematriya, "Elokim" equals "Hu Dayan" ("He is Judge") (86). See Gur Aryeh as to why the Name Havayah represents Midas ha'Rachamim.
Moreover, the Name 'Havayah' is also the acronym of "Hayah, Hoveh v'Yihyeh," implying inter alia, that He preceded the world and created it.
Why does the account of Creation first use the Name Elokim (1:1-2:3), then the Names Hashem Elokim together (2:4 -3:24), and eventually the Name Hashem alone (Perek 4 and on)?
Maharal (Tif'eres Yisrael Ch. 26): The initial Creation was with Midas ha'Din, represented by the Name Elokim. The next stage, the 'Tikun' of Creation, 1 uses the names Hashem Elokim together, for it was then that Din and Rachamim were combined. After Creation, only the Name Hashem is mentioned (i.e. the Tetragrammaton, which carries the meaning that He was, is, and always will be, and represents Rachamim).
'Tikun' means actualization, i.e. putting components into place to fulfill their purpose. For example, in Bereishis 2, Adam was placed in Gan Eden, commanded Mitzvos, wed to Chavah, etc. (CS)
How will we reconcile the fact that One G-d created the world with the word "Bereishis Bara Elokim", which suggests otherwise?
Yerushalmi B'rachos, 9:1: The Minim asked R. Simla'i a similar question, and he pointed out to them that the word "Bara" (singular) proves that "Elokim" too is singular. 1
See Torah Temmah citing the Yerushalmi, Ibid. and notes 6-7, and note 8, where he explains why "Elokim" is written in the plural and elaborates.
How does the term "Bara" apply to "Shamayim" - 'heaven' - which is abstract' (See Torah Temimah, note 9)?
Chagigah, 12a: Shamayim is the acronym of 'Sham Mayim' (R. Yossi b'R. Chanina), or of 'Eish u'Mayim' (Beraisa), out of which Hashem formed the heaven.
Why does the Torah add the word 'Es,' and write "Es ha'Shamayim v'Es ha'Aretz"?
Ramban #1: The word 'Es' always denotes the direct object.
Ramban #2 and Rashi (to 1:14): "Es ha'Shamayim" comes to include the hosts of the Heaven (the sun, moon, stars and constellations), and "Es ha'Aretz," the hosts of the earth (trees, plants and Gan Eden).
Rosh: If not for "Es," one might have thought that Shamayim and Aretz created Elokim, Chas v'Shalom.
Why does the Torah write, "Es ha'Shamayim v'Es ha'Aretz," as if they were two separate creations?
Ramban: They were indeed two separate creations. Hashem initially created the Heaven and its hosts (complete), and the earth and its hosts - as 'Tohu'. Refer to 1:1:3:2.
How will we reconcile the current Pasuk - "es ha'Shamayim ve'es ha?Aretz" with the Pasuk in 2:4 "be'Yom Asos Hashem Elokim Eretz ve'Shamayim"?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "Rebbi Yitzchak asks, the Torah need only have begun with the first Mitzvah?" But even the narrative portions of the Torah have meaning to teach us, including the seemingly minor details (see Sanhedrin 99b). Why is Rebbi Yitzchak's question valid?
Gur Aryeh: The word "Torah" (Devarim 33:4) means "instruction;" its purpose is to teach us how to act. We would therefore expect it to contain only the Mitzvos. For example, although the Book of Iyov was written by Moshe (Bava Basra 14b), it is not called "Torah."
Rashi writes: "If the nations of the world accuse us, 'You are bandits; you have occupied the land of the seven nations [of Kena'an]!' We say to them, 'The whole world is Hashem's... He gave [the Land] to us!'" But the question still stands; how is this connected to the Mitzvos of the Torah (refer to 1:1:1.1)?
Gur Aryeh #1: Most of the Mitzvos depend upon inheriting and settling Eretz Yisrael, such as all of the agricultural Mitzvos, building the Beis ha'Mikdash and its Avodah. Those Mitzvos would not apply had we been deemed to have entered the Land unjustly.
Gur Aryeh #2 (citing Ramban): The entire Torah is an expression of "the laws of the G-d of the Land (i.e. Eretz Yisrael)" (see Melachim II 17:26).
Rashi writes: "The Torah need only have begun [with the Exodus]." Ramban asks - It is quite necessary to begin the Torah with Creation, so that people not say that the world always existed! Such a belief would preclude any Divine miracles, and thus the Torah itself!
Gur Aryeh: The Exodus from Egypt, and the accompanying miracles that shattered the rules of nature, which we ourselves witnessed, serve as proof of the initial Creation by Hashem - and not the reverse. That is why Hashem began the Revelation at Sinai by stating, "I am Hashem... Who took you out of Egypt" (Shemos 20:2), and not by stating, "... Who created heaven and earth" (see Ibn Ezra loc. cit).
Rashi writes: "If the nations of the world accuse us... we say to them, 'The whole world is Hashem's....'" This explains why Creation is included, but what about the rest of the stories found in the Torah?
Gur Aryeh: Sefer Bereishis relates how the generations successively angered Hashem, until Avraham came and was given the Land. Avraham was then told that his descendants would be enslaved for 400 years before returning there. Only Bnei Yisrael fulfilled this prophecy, therefore only they are entitled to Eretz Yisrael.
Rashi writes: "The Torah need only have begun with the first Mitzvah." But perhaps Sefer Bereishis is included in the Torah, because it contains the Mitzvos of Milah (17: 9-14), and Gid ha'Nasheh (32:33)?
Gur Aryeh: All of the Mitzvos, including Milah and Gid ha'Nasheh, were later taught by Moshe to Bnei Yisrael. Had the Torah begun with the Exodus, it would have recorded these Mitzvos elsewhere.
Rashi writes: " If the nations of the world accuse us, 'You are bandits; you have occupied the land of the seven nations [of Kena'an]! ...'" But Kena'an was condemned to be a slave to his brothers (9: 25-27), and anything that a slave acquires belongs to his master (Pesachim 88b)!
Gur Aryeh #1: The Mitzvos specific to Eretz Yisrael depend upon our "inheriting and settling" it (e.g. Devarim 17:14); merely accruing it via Kena'an would not suffice.
Gur Aryeh #2: Noach made Kena'an a slave only on condition that his brothers not usurp his land. Were Bnei Yisrael to claim Eretz Yisrael through them, they would cease to be slaves.
Gur Aryeh #3: Noach gave the Land to Kena'an solely to live there, no to sell or trade it. 1 Property given to a slave for a specific use is not acquired by the master.
Rashi writes: "'Bereishis' - [Hashem created the world] for the sake of the Torah, and for the sake of Yisrael, [both of] which are called 'Reishis' (first, foremost)." How can this be explained?
Gur Aryeh #1: The purpose of all of Creation is to bring honor to Hashem (Yoma 38a). This honor only comes about when the creations obey Hashem's directives and serve Him; i.e. only though Yisrael fulfilling the Mitzvos of the Torah.
Gur Aryeh #2: Torah is called Reishis because it was Hashem's initial creation; Torah served as the blueprint for the physical world. 1 Yisrael is foremost in that they are the ultimate goal, and the end goal is the first to be planned. 2
See Maharal (Derush Al ha'Mitzvos p. 52): The letter "Beis" in "Bereishis can mean "with" or "using." Hashem created the physical world though the Torah.
Yisrael was in fact the last to form as a nation! Gur Aryeh compares this to the growth of a tree; the roots are the first to develop, yet the entire plant only grows in order to produce fruit at the end.
Rashi writes: "... for the sake of the Torah, which is called 'Reishis.'" How can this be explained?
Maharal (Chidushei Agados, Vol. 4, p. 22, to Avodah Zarah 3b): The Torah delineates world order for all of Creation; this is the meaning of Chazal's teaching that Hashem studies Torah. 1
Also see Maharal (Netzach Yisrael Ch. 3 and Ch. 10), who discusses this matter at length.
Rashi writes: "... To explain the simple meaning... 'In the beginning of Hashem's creating....'" How then are these verses to be explained?
Gur Aryeh: In this interpretation, the account of Creation begins at, "Let there be light" (1:3). The letter "Vav" at the beginning of verse 1:2 is a conjunctive "and;" therefore, that verse must be a continuation of the background which begins in our verse. 1
Gur Aryeh: The "Vav" at the beginning of 1:3 ("va'Yomer"), however, does not mean "and." Rather, it serves to switch the tense from future to past (as is common in Lashon ha'Kodesh).
Rashi writes: "... The Torah has not yet revealed when the water was created!" Why does Rashi ask this only now?
Gur Aryeh: In this interpretation, the verse would come to teach us the order of Creation, "In the beginning of everything, Hashem [first] created heaven and earth." Rashi asks that if so, the waters (mentioned in 1:2) should have been mentioned first here.
Rashi writes: "At first the thought arose to create the world according to Midas ha'Din (justice)." What does this come to teach us? In the end, Hashem used the attribute of Rachamim (mercy)?
Gur Aryeh: This teaches us that the ideal remains for a person, if he can, to earn his existence even by rules of strict justice, without needing mercy, for this is what Hashem wants.
Rashi writes: " At first the thought arose to create the world according to Midas ha'Din (justice)." Why?
